Transcript
NEET - 2016
01-05-2016 Time: 3 Hrs.
le;: 3 ?kaVs
CODE-C / R / Y
Max. Marks : 720 vf/kdre
vad
: 720
INSTRUCTIONS ( funsZ'k 'k) Important Instructions:
egRoiw.kZ funsZ'k %
1.
1.
The Answer Answer Sheet Sheet is inside inside this this Test Test Bookle Booklet. t. When you you are directed directe d to open the Test Test Booklet, Booklet , take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball blue/black ball point pen only.
2.
The test est is of 3 hours duration hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For e ach
2.
correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. marks. For each incorrect response, one mark mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720 720.. 3.
Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
4.
Rough Rough work work is is to be be done done on the the space space provi provided ded for for this this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5.
3.
On completion of the test, the candidate must havdover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator in the
4. 5.
Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 6.
The CODE ODE for for thi this Booklet is C. C. Make sure that the CODE
6.
printed on Side-2 of Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Booklet. In case of discrepancy, discrepancy, the candidate c andidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklets and the Answer Sheets. 7.
The Candi Candidate dates s should should ensure ensure that that the the Answ Answer er Sheet Sheet
7.
is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 8.
Use Use of whit white e fluid fluid for for cor corre rect ction ion is is NOT permissible NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8.
mÙkj i=k bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks ijh{kk iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i=k fudky dj i"B-1 ,oa i"B-2 ij dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy ikWbaV isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?kaVsV gS s gS ,oa ijh{kk iq fLrdk es a 180 iz'u 'u gS aA izR;s R;sd iz'u 'u 4 vad dk gSA izR;s R;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ dks dks 4 vad fn, tk,axsxAs izR;s R;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, fy, dqy ;ksx ese as ls ls ,d vad ?kVk;k tk,xkA vf/kdre va d 720 d ?kVk;k gSaA bl i"B i"B ij fooj.k vafdr fdr djus ,a ,a o mÙkj i=k ij fu'kku yxkus ds fy, fy, dsoy oy uhys@dkys @dkys ckW ckW y ikWbabVa isu dk iz ;ksx djs aA jQ dk;Z bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij gh djsa A ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] ijh{kkFkhZ d{k@gkW y NksMus ls iw iwoZ mÙkj i=k d{k fujh{kd dks vo'; lkSa i nsaA ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys ys tk ldrs gSaA bl iqfLrdk dk ladsr gS C A ;g lqfuf'pr dj ysa fd bl iqfLrdk dk ladsr] mÙkj i=k ds i"B-2 in Nis ladsr ls feyrk gSA vxj ;g fHkUu gks rks ijh{kkFkhZ nw ljh ljh ijh{kk iqfLrdk vkSsj mÙkj i=k ysus ds fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djk,aA ijh{kkFkhZ lq lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=k dks eksM+ k u tk, ,oa ml ij dks bZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,aA ijh{kkFkhZ viuk vuqØekad iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj fLrdk@mÙkj i=k es fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;=k uk fy[ksaA mÙkj i=k ij fdlh izdkj ds la'kks/ku gsrq OgkbV ¶+ywbM ds iz;ksx dh vuqefr ugha gS gSA
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz'uksa ds vuqokn esa fdlh fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr esa] vax s z sth laLdj.k Ldj.k dks gh vfUre ekuk tk;s xkA xkA Name of the Candiate (in Capital letters) : __________________________________ __________________________________________________ __________________________ __________ Roll Number : in figures : Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters) :
in words : ______________________ __________________________________ ________________________ _____________ _
ADMISSION ANNOUNCEMENT Academic Session: 2016-17
Selections
Selections @ 2015
(from 20012-2015)
66
35
(YCC (YCCP: P: 51 | DLP+eL DLP+eLP: P: 15)
(YCC (YCCP: P: 20 | DLP+eL DLP+eLP: P: 15)
AIPMT Selections (from 20012-2015)
Selections @ 2015
1559
447
(YCCP (YCCP:: 1128 1128 | DLP+eL DLP+eLP: P: 431) 431)
(YCCP (YCCP:: 337 337 | DLP+eL DLP+eLP: P: 110) 110) rd
Select Selection ion of every every 3 studen studentt from from classroom coaching program in AIPMT 2015
For Classes: XI, XII & XII+ Target: AIIMS / AIPMT
Resonance Medical Optional Scholarship Test (ResoMOST) th
08 May, 2016
ADMISSION ANNOUNCEMENT Academic Session: 2016-17
Selections
Selections @ 2015
(from 20012-2015)
66
35
(YCC (YCCP: P: 51 | DLP+eL DLP+eLP: P: 15)
(YCC (YCCP: P: 20 | DLP+eL DLP+eLP: P: 15)
AIPMT Selections (from 20012-2015)
Selections @ 2015
1559
447
(YCCP (YCCP:: 1128 1128 | DLP+eL DLP+eLP: P: 431) 431)
(YCCP (YCCP:: 337 337 | DLP+eL DLP+eLP: P: 110) 110) rd
Select Selection ion of every every 3 studen studentt from from classroom coaching program in AIPMT 2015
For Classes: XI, XII & XII+ Target: AIIMS / AIPMT
Resonance Medical Optional Scholarship Test (ResoMOST) th
08 May, 2016
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
PART A – BIOLOGY. In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the
1.
recombinant-type offspring. This indicates : (1) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene. (2) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes. (3) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis. (4) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.
ijh{kkFkhZ izladj.k esa] ftlesa F1 f}ladj dj efD[k;k¡ 'kkfey 'kkfey Fkha] iqu;ksZ xt izdkj dh larfr;ksa dh rqyuk esa tud&izdkj dh larfr;k¡ vf/kd mRiUu gq;hA blesa ladsr feyrs gSa fd % (1) nksuksa gh y{k.kksa dk fu;a=k.k ,d ls vf/kd vf/kd thuksa }kjk gksrk gSA (2) nks thu nks vyx xq.klw=kksa ij fLFkr gSaA (3) v/kZl =k.k w ds nkSjku xq.klw=k i Fkd ugha gks ik,A (4) nks thu lgyXu gSa vkS j ,d gh xq.klw=k ij fo|eku gSa A Ans. Sol. Sol.
(4) If a plant with genotype Aa Bb is crossed with aabb then Independent Assortment would would result in production of 4 type of offsprings in equal proportion. Aa Bb – Gametes AB Ab aB ab aa bb – Gametes ab ab ab ab offspring according to independent assortment AaBb 1 : (parental)
Aabb aaBb 1 : 1 (Recombinants)
:
aabb 1 (Parental)
Since parental percentage is more then recombinants it is due to linkage between genes A and B. Water soluble pigments pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:
2.
(1) Anthocyanins (2) Xanthophylls (3) Chlorophylls (4) Carotenoids
ikni dksf'kdk f'kdk dh jl/kkuh esa ty ty ?kqfyr o.kZ d dkSu ls gksrs gSa \ (1) ,UFkkslk;fuu (2) tSUFkks UFkksfQy (3) i.kZgfjr (4) dSjks jksfVukbM Ans. Sol.
(1) Anthocyanin in stored stored in vacuole
Resonance E Eduventures L Ltd. CORPORATE O OFFICE :: CG T Tower, A A-46 & & 5 52, IIPIA, N Near C City M Mall, JJhalawar R Road, K Kota ((Ra j. j .) - 324005 Reg. O Of f i c e : J 2 , J a w a h a r N a g a r , M a i n R o a d , K o t a ( R a j. j . ) 3 2 4 0 0 5 | P h . N o . : + 9 1 7 4 4 3 1 9 2 2 2 2 | F A X N o +91-022-39167222 f : N N . :: + J N M R K ( Ph.No. :: +91-744-3012222, 6 6635555 | T To K Know m more :: sms RESO a at 56677 Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail :
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PAGE # 1
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other ?
3.
(1)
Relaxin
Inhibin
(2)
Parathormone
Calcitonin
(3)
Insulin
Glucagon
(4)
Aldosterone
Atrial Natriuretic Factor
gkWeksZuksa ds fuEufyf[kr ;qXeksa esa ls dkSu&lk ;qXe ,d nwljs ds fojks/kh ¼foijhr izHkko okyk½ ugha gS \ (1)
fjySfDlu
bfUgfcu
(2)
iSjkFkkseksZu
dSfYlVksfuu
(3)
balqfyu
XyqdSxkWu
(4)
,sYMksLVsjkWu
,fVª;y usfVª;wjsfVd dkjd
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
Parathormone ! ! Calcitonin
+2
increases blood Ca level +2 decreases blood Ca level
insulin glucagon
! !
decreases blood glucose level increases blood glucose level
Aldosterone ANF
! !
increases B. P. decreses B. P.
! Relaxin causes pelvic musculature relaxation ! inhibin inhibits FSH So, Relaxin & inhibin not antagonistic 4.
Mitochondria and chloroplast are : (a) semi-autonomous organelles (b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery. Which one of the following options is correct ? (1) Both (a) and (b) are false. (2) Both (a) and (b) are correct. (3) (b) is true but (a) is false. (4) (a) is true but (b) is false.
Resonance E Eduventures L Ltd. CORPORATE O OFFICE :: CG T Tower, A A-46 & & 5 52, IIPIA, N Near C City M Mall, JJhalawar R Road, K Kota ((Ra j. j.) - 324005 Reg. O Of f i c e : J 2 , J a w a h a r N a g a r , M a i n R o a d , K o t a ( R a j. . ) 3 2 4 0 0 5 | P h . N o . : + 9 1 7 4 4 3 1 9 2 2 2 2 | F A X N o +91-022-39167222 f : N N . :: + J N M R K ( j Ph.No. :: +91-744-3012222, 6 6635555 | T To K Know m more :: sms RESO a at 56677 Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail :
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PAGE # 2
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
ekbVkssdkWf.Mª;k vkSj DyksjksIykLV ¼gfjryod½ gSa % (a) v/kZLoklÙk vaxd gSaA (b) iwoZorhZ vaxdksa ds foHkktu ls curs gSa vkSj muesa fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa esa ls dkS u&lk lgh gS \ (1) (a) vkSj (b) nksuksa gh xyr gaSA
DNA gksrk
Code-C,R,Y
gS] ysfdu izksVhu&la'ys"kh iz.kkyh dk vHkko gksrk gSA
(2) (a) vkSj (b) nksuksa (3) (4) Ans. Sol.
gh lgh gaSA (b) lgh gS ys fdu (a) xyr gSA (a) lgh gS ysfdu (b) xyr gSA
(4) Mitochondria and chloroplast have their own ribosomes wwith help of which they can synthesize protein. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ? (1) Single – stranded (2) Independent replication (3) Circular structure (4) Transferable
5.
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS ulk ,d IykfTeM dk vfHky{k.k ugha gS \ (1) ,dy
jTtqdh; (2) Lora=k izfrdfr;u (3) oÙkh; lajpuk (4) LFkkukUrj.k ;ksX; –
Ans. Sol.
(1) Plasmide are double stranded DNA.
6.
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant ? (1) Nitrogen fixer (2) C3 (3) C4 (4) CAM
vkids m|ku esa ,d ikni izdk'k 'olu ls gksus okyh gkfu ls cprk gS] mldh ty mi;ksx dh n{krk mUur gS] og mPp rki ij izdk'k la'ys"k.k dh mPp nj dks n'kkZrk gS vkSj mldh ukbVªkstu mi;ksx dh n{krk mUur gSA vki bl ikni dks fuEufyf[kr es a ls fdl ,d dkf;Zdh lewg esa j[ksaxs\ (1) ukbVªkstu fLFkfjdkjd (2) C3 Ans. Sol.
(3) C4 (4) CAM (3) C4 plants have high rate of photosynthesis at higher temperature.
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PAGE # 3
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:
7.
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation (2) Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport (3) Two photosystems operating simultaneously (4) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
belZu nh?khZdj.k izHkko vkSj yky cwan ¼jsM Mªki½ fdldh [kkst esa izeq[k ;a=k jgs gSa \ (1) vkWDlhMsfVo QkLQksfjys'ku (2) izdk'kQkLQksfjys'ku vkSj vpØh; bysDVªkWu vfHkxeu (3) nks izdk'k rU=kksa dk ,d lkFk dk;Z djuk (4) izdk'kQkLQksfjys'ku vkSj pØh; bysDVªkWu vfHkxeu Ans. Sol.
(3) Red drop occur due decreased functioning of ps-II beyond 680 nm and when both ps I and ps II are
8.
functioning together their is enchancement in quantum yield. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location ? Tissue
Location
(1)
Cuboidal epithelium
Lining of stomach
(2)
Smooth muscle
Wall of intestine
(3)
Areolar tissue
Tendons
(4)
Transitional epithelium
Tip of nose
dkSu&lk Ård viuh fLFkfr ls lgh&lgh lqesfyr gS \ Ård
fLFkfr
(1)
?kukdkj midyk
vkek'k; vkLrj
(2)
fpduh is'kh
vka=k fHkfÙk
(3)
,sfjvksyh Ård
daMjk
(4)
ifjorhZ midyk
ukfldkxz
Ans.
(2)
9.
When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K) : (1) when death rate is greater than birth rate. (2) when N/K is exactly one. (3) when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat. (4) when N/K equals zero.
Resonance E Eduventures L Ltd. CORPORATE O OFFICE :: CG T Tower, A A-46 & & 5 52, IIPIA, N Near C City M Mall, JJhalawar R Road, K Kota ((Ra j. j.) - 324005 Reg. O Of f i c e : J 2 , J a w a h a r N a g a r , M a i n R o a d , K o t a ( R a j. . ) 3 2 4 0 0 5 | P h . N o . : + 9 1 7 4 4 3 1 9 2 2 2 2 | F A X N o +91-022-39167222 f : N N . :: + J N M R K ( j Ph.No. :: +91-744-3012222, 6 6635555 | T To K Know m more :: sms RESO a at 56677 Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail :
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PAGE # 4
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
ykWftfLVd ekWMy dk vuqlj.k djrs gq, fdlh lef"V dh o f) nj 'kwU; ds cjkcj dc gksxh \ ykWftfLVd ekW My dks fuEufyf[kr lehdj.k ls n'kkZ;k x;k gS% dN/dt = rN(1-N/K) : (1) tc
tUenj dh vis{kk eR;qnj vf/kd gksA (2) tc N/K Bhd ,d gks (3) tc N i;kZokl dh /kkfjrk {kerk ds lehi gksA (4) tc N/K 'kwU; ds cjkcj gksA Ans.
(2)
Sol.
dN # N$ % rN ' 1 & ( dt ) k* dN % rN +1 & 1, % 0 dt
10.
Which one of the following statements is not true ? (1) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes (2) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther (3) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin (4) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS ulk dFku lR; ugha gS \ (1) nzfor
ukbVªkstu esa Hk.Mkfjr ijkxd.k] Qly iztuu ;kstukvksa esa iz;qDr fd;s tk ldrs gSa (2) ijkxdks"k ds LQqVu esa VsihVe lgk;rk djrk gS (3) ijkxd.kksa dh cká Liksjksiksys fuu dh cuh gksrh gS (4) cgqr lh tkfr;ks a ds ijkxd.k xEHkhj izR;wtZrk iSnk djrs gSa Ans. Sol.
(2) Dehiscence of anther occur due to stomium cells of endothecium
11.
Which one of the following statements is wrong ? (1) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi. (2) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae. (3) Golden algae are also called desmids. (4) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.
fuEufyf[kr es aa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS \ (1) QkbdksekbflVht dks 'kSofyr dod Hkh dgk tkrk gSA (2) lk;ukscSDVhfj;k dks uhy gfjr 'kSoky Hkh dgrs gSaA (3) Lof.kZe 'kSokyksa dks MsfLeM Hkh dgrs gSaA (4) ;qcSDVhfj;k ¼lqthok.kqvksa½ dks vlR; thok.kq Hkh dgk tkrk gSA Ans. Sol.
(4) Eubacteria are called true bacteria.
Resonance E Eduventures L Ltd. CORPORATE O OFFICE :: CG T Tower, A A-46 & & 5 52, IIPIA, N Near C City M Mall, JJhalawar R Road, K Kota ((Ra j. j.) - 324005 Reg. O Of f i c e : J 2 , J a w a h a r N a g a r , M a i n R o a d , K o t a ( R a j. . ) 3 2 4 0 0 5 | P h . N o . : + 9 1 7 4 4 3 1 9 2 2 2 2 | F A X N o +91-022-39167222 f : N N . :: + J N M R K ( j Ph.No. :: +91-744-3012222, 6 6635555 | T To K Know m more :: sms RESO a at 56677 Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail :
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PAGE # 5
| NEET-2016
12.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of: (1) Ethylene (2) ABA (3) GA3 (4) IAA
,ohuk oØrk fdlds tS o vkekiu ds fy, iz;qDr gksrh gS \ (1) ,fFkyhu
Ans. Sol.
(2) ABA (3) GA3 (4) IAA (4) Avena curvature bioassay is done to test function of IAA.
13.
Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird ? (1) Flipper of Whale (2) Dorsal fin of the Shark (3) Wing of a Moth (4) Hind limb of Rabbit
fuEufyf[kr lajpukvksa esa ls dkSulh lajpuk i{kh ds ia[k ds letkr gS % (1) g~osy dk ¶yhij (2) 'kkdZ dh i"B ia[k (3) 'kyHk dk ia[k (4) [kjxks'k dk i'p ikn Ans.
(1)
14.
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is : (1) less than that in the venae cavae (2) same as that in the aorta (3) more than that in the carotid (4) more than that in the pulmonary vein
Qq¶Qql /keuh ds Hkhrj :f/kj nkc gksrk gS % (1) egkf'kjk ds Hkhrj ftruk gksrk gS mlls de gksrk gSA (2) mruk gh ftruk egk/keuh ds Hkhrj gksrk gSA (3) dSjksfVM ds Hkhrj ftruk gksrk gS mlls vf/kd gks rk gSA (4) Qq¶Qql f'kjk ds Hkhrj ftruk gksrk gS] mlls vf/kd gks rk gSA Ans. Sol.
(4) Higher blood pressure in pulmonary vein than pulmonary artery is an abnormal condition leading to pulmonary hypertension & pulmonary oedema.
Resonance E Eduventures L Ltd. CORPORATE O OFFICE :: CG T Tower, A A-46 & & 5 52, IIPIA, N Near C City M Mall, JJhalawar R Road, K Kota ((Ra j. j.) - 324005 Reg. O Of f i c e : J 2 , J a w a h a r N a g a r , M a i n R o a d , K o t a ( R a j. . ) 3 2 4 0 0 5 | P h . N o . : + 9 1 7 4 4 3 1 9 2 2 2 2 | F A X N o +91-022-39167222 f : N N . :: + J N M R K ( j Ph.No. :: +91-744-3012222, 6 6635555 | T To K Know m more :: sms RESO a at 56677 Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail :
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PAGE # 6
| NEET-2016
15.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if: (1) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus. (2) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube. (3) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian tube. (4) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix.
ekuoksa es a fu"kspu izfØ;k O;kogkfjdr% rHkh laHko gksxh tc% (1) xzhok uky ds Hkhrj 'kqØk.kqvksa dk LFkkukUrj.k xHkkZ'k; esa v.Mk.kq ds fueqqZDr gksus ds 48 ?kaVs ds Hkhrj gksrk gksA (2) 'kqØk.kqvksa dk ;ksfu ds Hkhrj LFkkukUrj.k v.Mk.kq ds QSYkks fi;u ufydk ugha esa NksM+s tkus ds Bhd ckn gksA (3) v.Mk.kq vkSj 'kqØk.kqvksa dk LFkkukUrj.k QSYkksfi;u ufydk ds ,aiq yjh&bLFkfed laxe ij ,d gh le; ij gksA (4) v.Mk.kq vkSj 'kqØk.kqvksa dk LFkkukUrj.k xzhok ds ,aiq yjh bLFkfed laxe ij ,d gh le; ij gksrk gksA Ans.
(2,3)
16.
In meiosis crossing over is initiated at : (1) Diplotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Leptotene
v)Zl =kh w foHkktu es a thu fofue; fdl voLFkk esa vkjEHk gksrk gS \ (1) f}iê (2) LFkwyiê (3) ruqiê
(4) Zygotene (4) ;qXeiê
Ans. Sol.
(2) In pachytene recombination nodule is formend after which crossing over occur
17.
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and slime moulds are included in the kingdom: (1) Animalia (2) Monera (3) Protista (4) Fungi
ØkblksQkbV] ;qXyhukWbM] Mkbuks¶ystsysV vkSj voiad QQaqnh fdl tho txr~ esa lfEefyr gSa \ (1) tarq txr~ (2) eksusjk (3) izksfVLVk (4) dod Ans. 18.
(3) Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as : (1) Tonus (2) Spasm (3) Fatigue (4) Tetanus
mÙkjksÙkj mn~nhiuksa ds chp foJkafr dh deh ds dkj.k gksus okyh nh?kZdkfyd is'kh ladqpu dgykrk gSaS % (1) Vksul (2) ,a sBu ¼LikT+e½ (3) Fkdku (4) fVVsul Ans.
(4)
Sol.
Tonus Spasm fatigue Tetanus
19.
Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin' : (1) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH. (2) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Pr olactin. (3) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH. (4) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.
! ! ! !
low level activity of muscles at rest to maintain posture. Sudden involuntary muscle contraction decline in muscle activity Sustained muscle contraction in response to successive stimuli
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Code-C,R,Y
'bafgfcu' ds
ckjs esa lgh dFku igpkfu, % (1) ;g o "k.kksa dh /kk=kh ¼ulZ½ dksf'kdkvksa }kjk mRiUu gksrk gS vkSj LH - òo.k dks lanfer djrk gSA (2) LH,FSH vkSj izksySfDVu òo.k dks lanfer djrk gSA (3) ;g v.Mk'k; dh df.kdh; dksf'kdkvksa }kjk mRiUu gksrk gS A vkSj FSH òo.k dks lanfer djrk gSA (4) ;g v.Mk'k; dh df.kdh; dksf'kdkvksa }kjk mRiUu gksrk gS vkSj LH òo.k dks lanfer djrk gSA Ans.
(3)
20.
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking: (1) Respiratory alkalosis (2) Emphysema (3) Asthma (4) Respiratory acidosis
/kweziku djus ds dkj.k iz/kkur% mRiUu gksus okys nh?kZdkyh 'olu&fodkj dk uke crkb, % (1) 'olu {kkje;rk (2) okrLQhfr (3) vLFkek (4) 'olu vkEyjDrrk Ans.
(2)
21.
Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia ? (1) Dominant gene disorder (3) X-linked recessive gene disorder
(2) Recessive gene disorder (4) Chromosomal disorder
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS ulk gheksQhfy;k dk lcls vf/kd mi;qDr o.kZu izLrqr djrk gSA (1) izHkkoh thu dk fodkj (2) vizHkkoh thu dk fodkj (3) X-lgyXu vizHkkoh thu dk fodkj (4) xq.klw=kh fodkj Ans. Sol.
(3) Gene related with haemophilia is always present on X chromosome and it is present on X chromosome and it is recessive gene disorder as it express itself in females when comes an homonzygous condition
22.
Select the correct statement: (1) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate (2) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous (3) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms (4) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
lgh dFku pqfu, % (1) vukorchth
ikniksa dh ifÙk;k¡ tyok;q dh pjerk ds fy, vuqdwfyr ugha gksrh gSa A (2) vukorchth] lechtk.kqd vkSj fo"kechtk.kqd] nksuksa izdkj ds gksrs gSa (3) lkfYofu;k] ftaxks vkSj ikbul] ;s lHkh vukorchth gS a (4) fldksb;k lcls yEcs o{kksa esa ls ,d gS Ans.
(4)
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23.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for t he expression of Lac operon? (1) lactose and galactose (3) galactose
(2) glucose (4) lactose
ySd izpkysd dh vfHkO;fDr ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u ,d izsjd ds :i esa dk;Z djus ds fy, vko';d gksxk \ (1) ySDVkst vkSj xSys DVkst (2) Xywdkst (3) xSysDVkst (4) ySDVkst Ans. Sol.
(4) As lae operon becomes active after inducing lactose but glucose & galactose can't do so. Pure dwarf tt
Pure tall TT
T
t
F1 generation = Tt
F2 generation
Genothypes = 1 TT Pure Tall 24.
T TT Tt
T t
:
2 Tt
t Tt tt
:
heterogygous tall
1 tt pure dwarf
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the rat io of :
,d yECks rn~:i iztuu m|ku eVj ikni dks ,d ckSus rn~:i iztuu m|ku eVj ikni ls ladfjr djk;k x;kA tc F1 ikniksa dks Loijkfxr fd;k x;k rks thu izk:i dk ifjek.k fdl vuqikr esa Fkk \
Ans.
(1) 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall (2) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf (3) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf (4) 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf (1) 3 : 1 : : ckSus : yECks (2) 1 : 2 : 1 : : yEcs le;qXeth : yEcs fo"ke;q Xeth : ckSus (3) 1 : 2 : 1 : : yECks fo"ke;qXeth : yEcs le;qXeth : ckSus (4) 3 : 1 : : yEcs : ckSus (2)
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25.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ?
rEckdw ds ikS/ks dk dkS u&lk Hkkx feyksbMksxkbu bUdksfXuVk }kjk laØfer gksrk gS\ Ans. 26.
(1) Root (1) tM+ (1)
(2) Flower (2) iq"i
(3) Leaf (3) iRrh
(4) Stem (4) ruk
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
dkf;d dksf'kdkvksa es a lelw =k.k ds nkSjku fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkSu&lk y{k.k ugha ik;k tkrk \
Ans. Sol. 27.
(1) Synapsis (2) Spindle fibres (3) Disappearance of nucleolus (4) Chromosome movement (1) lw=k;qXeu (2) rdqZ:ih rarq (3) dsfUnzdk dk foyksiu (4) xq.klw=k xfr (1) Synapsis is pairing of homologous chromosomes which occurs during meiosis but it is absent in mitos. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
mRifjorZu ds laca/k esa dS alj dksf'kdkvksa ds fy, fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk lgh ugha gS\
Ans. Sol.
28.
(1) Mutations inhibit production of telomeres. (2) Mutations in proto-oncogenes acceleration the cell cycle. (3) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor. (4) Mutations inactivate the cell control. (1) mRifjorZu Vhyksejst ds mRiknu dks lanfer dj nsrs gSaA (2) izkd~dSaljthuksa esa mRifjorZu dksf'kdk&pØ dks Rofjr dj ns rs gSA (3) mRifjorZu Vhyksejst laned dks u"V dj nsrs gS A (4) mRifjorZu dksf'kdk&fu;a=k.k dks fuf"Ø; dj nsrs gSaA (1) Cancer will be caused by increased telomerase activity making the cancerous cells immortal & not by inhibition of telomerase production. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is :
vf/kdrj dodksa esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dk ,d izeq[k vo;o dkSu lk gS \
Ans.
(1) Hemicelluloses (3) Peptidoglycan (1) gsehlsY;wykst (3) isIVhMksXykbdu (2)
(2) Chitin (4) Cellulose (2) dkbfVu (4) lsY;wy w kst
29.
Cotyledon of maize grain is called :
eDdk ds nkus ds chti=k dks D;k dgk tkrk gS \
Ans. Sol.
(1) scutellum (2) Plumule (3) coleorhiza (4) coleoptile (1) LdqVsye (2) izkadqj (3) ewykadqj&pksy (4) izkadqj&pksy (1) In maize grains single large shield shaped cotyledon is called scutellum.
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30.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks ?
,d uXu pV~Vku ij ,d vxzxkeh tho ds :i esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu vk;sxk \ Ans. Sol.
(1) Green algae (2) Lichens (3) Liverworts (4) Mosses (1) gfjr 'kSoky (2) ykbdsu (3) fyojoVZ (4) ekWl (2) Lichens are pioneer organisms on bare rocks as they corrode the rocks by secreting enzyme & converted into soil.
31.
Ans. Sol. 32.
Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of : eknkvksa esa GnRH iYl ckjackjrk cnyko dk fu;a=k.k fdlds ifjla pj.k&Lrjkas }kjk gksrk gS \ (1) progesterone and inhibin (2) estrogen and progesterone (3) estrogen and inhibin (4) progesterone only (1) izkstsLVsjkWu vkSj bafgfcu (2) bZLVªkstu vkSj izkstsLVsjkWu (3) bZLVªkstu vkSj bafgfcu (4) dsoy izkstsLVsjkWu (2) GnRH pulse frequency in controlled by estrogen and progesterone both after puberty Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain :
izfrvkfo"k Vhdksa esa iwoZfufeZr izfrj{kh gks rs gSa tcfd iksfy;ks dh cw¡nks aa esa ftUgsa eq ¡g }kjk fnyk;k tkrk gS] gksrs gSa %
Ans.
33.
(1) Attenuated pathogens (2) Activated pathogens (3) Harvested antibodies (4) Gamma globulin (1) {kh.k dj fn, x, jksxtud (2) lfØf;r jksxtud (3) cuk, x, izfrj{kh (4) xkek XyksC;qfyu (1) OPV is of 2 types : (i) OPV sabin – Live attenuated vaccine (ii) OPV salk – Killed vaccine Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:
ekuo us=k es a izdk'klaosnh ;kSfxd cuk gksrk gS %
Ans. Sol.
(1) Transducin and Retinene (3) Opsin and Retinal' (1) VªkaLM~;wflu vkSj jsfVuhu ls (3) vksfIlu vkSj jsfVuy ls (3) Rhodopsin is made of opsin & retinal.
(2) Guanosine and Retinol (4) Opsin and Retinol (2) Xokuksflu vkSj jsfVukWy ls (4) vksfIlu vkSj jsfVukWy ls
34.
Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called :
}kj dksf'kdkvksa dks ?ksjus okyh fof'k"Vhdr ckgkzRoph; dksf'kdkvksa dks D;k dgk tkrk gS \
Ans. Sol.
(1) Lenticels (2) Complementary cells (3) Subsidiary cells (4) Bulliform cells (1) okrjU/kz (2) iwj d dksf'kdk,a (3) lgk;d dksf'kdk,¡ (4) vko/kZ Roddksf'kdk,a (3) As subsidiary cells & guard cells both are modification of epidermal cells in which guard cells have chloroplasts which is absent in surroundings subsidiary cells.
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35.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum - Arthropoda?
fuEufyf[kr y{k.kkas esa ls dkSu&lk y{k.k Qkbye&vkFkzkZ siksMk eas ugha ik;k tkrk \
Ans. Sol. 36.
Ans. 37.
(1) Jointed appendages (3) Metameric segmentation (1) laf/kr mikax (3) fo[kaMh [kaMhHkou (4) Parapodia is a characteristic of Annelida.
(2) Chitinous exoskeleton (4) Parapodia (2) dkbfVuh ckgkzdadky (4) ik'oZikn
Reduction in pH of blood will : :f/kj ds pH esa gksus okyh deh ds dkj.k (1) release bicarbonate ions by the liver, (2) reduce the rate of heart beat. (3) reduce the blood supply to the brain (4) decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen. (1) ;dr }kjk ckbdkcks ZusV dk fu"dklu gksus yxsxkA (2) ân;&Lianu dh nj de gks tk;sxh (3) efLr"d dk :f/kj laHkj.k de gks tk;s xkA (4) vkWDlhtu ds lkFk gheksXyksfcu dh ca/kqrk ?kV tk;sxhA (4) Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals? fuEufyf[kr esa ls dks u&ls fof'k"V y{k.k ges'kk gh tarqvksa ds vuq:ih oxZ esa i k, tkrs gSa ? (1)
3 - chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
Reptilia
(2)
Cartilaginous endoskeleton
Chondrichthyes
(3)
Viviparous
Mammalia
(4)
Possess a mouth with an
Chordata
upper and a lower jaw (1)
3 - d{k
okyk ân; ftlesa viw.kZr% caVk gqvk ,d fuy; gksrk gSaA
jsIVhfy;k
(2)
mikfLFky var%dadky
dkWfMªDFkht
(3)
ltho iztd Åijh vkSj fupys tcM+s okyk eq[k dk ik;k tkuk
eseSfy;k dkWMsZVk
(4)
Ans.
(2)
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Sol.
Reptilia has an order crocodilia which shows 4 chambered heart. In mammals, prototheria group shows oviparity while metatheria & eutheria show viviparity. Chordates can be gnathostomata & agnatha (without jaws). Only cartilaginous fishes (chondrichthyes) show cartilaginous endoskeleton without exception
38.
Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column IIand choose the correct option: dkWye I dh 'kCnksa dks dkWye II esa fn, x, muds o.kZu ls eSp dhft;s rFkk lgh fo dYi pq fu,: Column I Column II (a) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character (b) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself (c) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully (d) Polygenic inheritance (iv) A single gene influences many characters LrEHk I LrEHk II (a) izHkkfork (i) vusd thu ,dy y{k.k dk fu;a=k.k djrs gS a (b) lgizHkkfork (ii) fo"ke;qXeuth tho esa dsoy ,d gh ,syhy Lo;a dks vfHkO;Dr djrk
gS (c) cgqizHkkfork (d) cgqthuh
fo"ke;qXeuth tho es a nksu aks gh ,syhy Lo;a dks iwjh rjg vfHkO;Dr djrs gSaA (iv) ,dy thu vusd y{k.kksa dks izHkkfor djrk gSA
(iii)
oa'kkxfr
Code: (1) (2) (3) (4)
(a) (iv) (ii) (ii) (iv)
(b) (ill) (i) (ill) (i)
(c) (i) (iv) (iv) (ii)
(d) (ii) (ill) (i) (ill)
Ans.
(3)
39.
A typical fat molecule is made up of :
,d izk:ih olk dk v.kq fdldk cuk gks rk gS \
Ans. Sol.
(1) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules (2) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule (3) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules (4) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule (1) rhu XyhljkWy vkSj rhu olk vEy v.kqvksa dk (2) rhu XyhljkWy v.kqvksa vkSj ,d olk vEy v.kq dk (3) ,d XyhljkWy v.kq vkSj rhu olk vEy v.kqvksa dk (4) ,d XyhljkWy vkSj ,d olk vEy v.kq dk (3) fat is a triglyceride which is made up of 3 molecules of fatty acids and one molecule of glycerol
40.
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the :
iqadslj ds rUrq dk fudVLFk fljk fdlls tqM+k gksrk gS \
Ans.
(1) Thalamus or petal (3) Connective (1) iq"iklu ;k ny (3) la;kstd (1)
(2) Anther (4) Placenta (2) ijkxdks"k (4) chtk.Mklu
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41.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lk dFku xyr gS \
Ans. Sol. 42.
(1) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid. (2) Sucrose is a disaccharide. (3) Cellulose is a polysaccharide. (4) Uracil is a pyrimidine. (1) Xykbflu ,d lYQj;qDr vehuks vEy gSA (2) lqØksl ,d MkblSdsjkbM gSA (3) lsY;wyksl ,d ikWfylSdsjkbM gSA (4) ;wjSfly ,d fifjfeMhu gSA (1) Glycine is the simplest amino acid which is devoid of sulpher content Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon. dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options :
ikni iÙkh ls tyok"i jU/kzk as ds }kjk ckgj vkrk gS izdk'k la'ys"k.k ds nkSjku mlh jU/kz ls dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM ikni ls folfjr gksrh gSA mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ¼dkj.kksa ij fopkj dj½ ,d fodYi pqfu, % :
Ans.
(1) One process occurs during day time, and the other at night. (2) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously. (3) Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient ofwater and CO 2 is different. (4) The above processes happen only during nighttime. (1) ,d izfØ;k fnu esa rFkk nwljh izfØ;k jkr es a gksrh gSA (2) nksuksa izfØ;k,s a ,d lkFk ugha gks ldrhA (3) nksuksa izfØ;k,a ,d lkFk gks ldrh gS a D;ks afd ty vkSj CO2 dk folj.k xq.kkad fHkUu gSA (4) mi;qZDr izfØ;k,a dsoy jkr esa gks ldrh gSa A (3)
Ans.
A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as : jkbckslkse dk ,d ladqy tks RNA ds ,dy jTtqd ds lkFk tqM+k gksrk gS] D;k dgykrk (1) Okazaki fragment (2) Polysome (3) Polymer (4) Polypeptide (1) vksdktkdh [k.M (2) ikWyhlkse (3) ikWyhej ¼cgqyd½ (4) ikWyhisIVkbM (2)
44.
Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?
43.
gS :
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u ,d d f"kHkwfe ikfjrU=k dk vfHky{k.k gS \
Ans. 45.
(1) Ecological succession (3) Least genetic diversity (1) ikfjrfU=kd vuqØe.k (3) U;wure vkuqoaf'kd fofo/krk (3)
(2) Absence of soil organisms (4) Absence of weeds (2) enk thoksa dh vuqifLFkfr (4) vir.kksa dh vuqifLFkfr
Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction? (1) Co – extinctions (2) Over - exploitation (3) Alien species invasion (4) Habitat loss and fragmentation
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| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
tUrqvksa vkSj ikniksa dh foyqfIr dk fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d lcls eq[; dkj.k gS\ (1) lg&lekfIr (2) vfr nksgu (3) fons'kh tkfr dh p<+kbZ (4) vkokl gkfu vkSj [kaMu Ans.
(4)
46.
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in :
gjfr yod esa izksVkWu dh vf/kdre la[;k dgk¡ ik;h tkrh gS\
Ans. 47.
(1) Antennae compIex (3) Lumen of thylakoids (1) ,sUVsuk leqPp (3) FkkbysdksbM dh vodkf'kdk (3)
(2) Stroma (4) Inter membrane space (2) ihfBdk (4) vUrj dyk LFkku
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
Mh-,u-, vaxqfyNkiu dh fdlh Hkh rduhd ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ,d dh vko';drk ugha gksrh \
Ans.
(1) DNA -DNA hybridization (3) Zinc finger analysis (1) Mh ,u ,&Mh ,u-, ladj.k (3) ftad vaxqfy fo'ys"k.k (3)
(2) Polymerase chain reaction (4) Restriction enzymes (2) ikWyhejst Ja[kyk vfHkfØ;k (4) izfrca/ku ,atkbe
48.
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the : (1) Eubacteria
(2) Halophiles
(3) Thermoacidophiles
(4) Methanogens
os vkfne izkd~dsUnzdh izk.kh] tks jkseUFkh tarqv skaa ds xkscj ls ck;ksxSl&mRiknu ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrs gS] fdlds varxZr vkrs gS\ (1) lqthok.kqvkas (3) rki&vEy
ds
(2) yo.kjkfx;ksa
jkfx;ka ds
(4) ehFkSutudksa
ds ds
Ans.
(4)
49.
Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana? (1) Metamerically segmented body (2) Schizocoelom as body cavity (3) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development (4) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lk y{k.k isfjIySusVk vesfjdkuk esa ugh ik;k tkrk gS\ (1) fo[kaM'k% (2) nsgxqgk (3) Hkwz.kh;
[kafMr nsg
ds :i esa nh.kZxqgk ifjo/kZu ds nkSjku vfu/kkZfjr vkSj vjh; fonyu
(4) N – ,lsfVyXywdksl,sehu
ls fufeZr ckádadky
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Code-C,R,Y
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
Periplaneta Americana shows indeterminate and spiral cleavage
50.
A system of rotating crops with legume or gras pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called: (1) Shifting agriculture (2) Ley farming (3) Contour farming (4) Strip farming
enk lajpuk vkSj moZjdrk es a lq/kkj ykus ds fy, Qlyksa dks Qyhnkj ikS/kksa ¼ysX;we½ ;k ?kkl pkjxkg ds lkFk cnydj yxkus dks D;k dgk tkrk gS\ (1) LFkkukUrjh (2) ys
Ñf"k
[ksrh
(3) leksPpjs[kh; (4) iV~Vhnkj
[ksrh
[ksr
Ans.
(2)
51.
Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Microbe
Product
Application
(1)
Clostridium butylicum
Lipase
removal of oil stains
(2)
Trichoderma polysporum
Cyclosporin A
immunosuppressive drug
Monascus purpureus
Statins
lowering of blood cholesterol
Streptococcus
Streptokinase
removal of clot from blood vessel
(3) (4)
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uhps nh x;h rkfydk esa xyr feyk;h x;h enksa dks pqfu,
(1)
Code-C,R,Y
?
lw{ketho
mRikn
vuqiz;ksx
DykWLVªhfM;e
ykbist
rsy ds /kCcksa dks gVkuk
C;wVk;fyde (2)
VªkbZd ksMekZ iksyhLiksje
lkbDyksLiksfju A
izfrj{kk laned vkS"kf/k
(3)
eksuSLdl ijI;wjh;l
LVsfVal
:f/kj&dksyLs VªkWy dks de djuk
(4)
LVsªIVksdkWd l
LVªsIVksdbuSt
:f/kj&okfgdk ls FkDds dks gVkuk
Ans.
(1)
52.
In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea? (1) Hepatic Portal Vein (2) Renal Vein (3) Dorsal Aorta (4) HepaticVein.
Lru/kkfj;ks a esa dkSu&lh :f/kj&okfgdk lkekU;r% lcls vf/kd ;wf j;k ogu djrh gS \ (1) ;Ñr
fuokfgdk f'kjk
(2) oDd&f'kjk (3) i"B
egk/keuh
(4) ;Ñr&f'kjk Ans.
(4)
Sol.
Urea/Ornithine cycle takes place in liver so the vein leaving li ver possesses maximum urea which is hepatic vein
53.
Pick out the correct statements : (a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease. (b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy. (c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder. (d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked r ecessive gene disorder. (1) (a), (b) and (c)are correct. (2) (a) and (d) are correct. (3) (b)and (d) are correct. (4) (a), (c)and (d) are correct.
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| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
lgh dFku pqfu, % (a) gheksQhfy;k fyax&lgyXu vizHkkoh jksx gSA (b) Mkmu flaMªkse vlqxqf.krk ds dkj.k gksrk gSA (c) QsfuydhVksuesg ¼fQukbydhVksU;wfj;k½ ,d vfyax lw=kh vizHkkoh thu fodkj gSA (d) nk=k dksf'kdk jDrkYirk X-lgyXu vizHkkoh thu fodkj gSA (1) (a), (b) vkSj (c) lgh gSA (2) (a) vkSj (d)
lgh gSA (3) (b) vkSj (d) lgh gSA (4) (a), (c) vkSj (d) lgh gSA Ans.
(1)
Sol.
Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal codominant disorder
54.
Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum? (1) Sphincter of Oddi
(2) Semilunar valve
(3) Ileocaecal valve
(4) Pyloric sphincter.
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u&lh lajpuk ;ÑnXU;kl dh okfguh ds xz g.kh esa [kqyus okys ja/kz dh ns[kHkky djrh gS\ (1) vksMkbZ
dks vojksf/kuh
(2) v/kZpanzkdkj
(3) f=kdka=k
dikV
(4) tBjfuxZe
Ans.
(1)
55.
Microtubules are the constituents of :
dikV
vojksf/kuh
(1) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles (2) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes (3) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia (4) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin.
lw{eufydk,¡ la?kVd gksrh gS : (1) rkjdk;ks a]
U;wfDy;kslkse vkSj rkjddsUnzks ds
(2) i{ekHkksa]
d'kkHkksa vkSj ijvkWDlhdk;ksa ds
(3) rdZq:ih
js'kksa] rkjddsUnzksa vkSj i{ekHkksa ds
(4) rkjddsUnzks] Ans.
rdZ:ih js'kksa vkSj ØkseSfVu ds
(3)
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56.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The coconut water from tender coconut represents : (1) Free nuclear endosperm
(2) Endocarp
(3) Fleshy mesocarp
(4) Free nuclear proembryo
dPps ukfj;y eas] ukfj;y ikuh D;k gS\ (1) LorU=k
dsUnzdh Hkzw.kiks"k
(2) vUr%QyfHkfÙk
(3) xwnsnkj
e/;QyfHkfÙk
(4) LorU=k
dsUnzdh Hkzw.kiwohZ
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
In tender coconut, edible part is liquid endosperm that represents free nuclear endosperm
57.
Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of: (1) Poaceae (2) Liliaceae (3) Solanaceae (4) Fabaceae
f=kdks"Bdh] ;qDrk.Mih tk;k¡x fdlds iq"i esa gksrk gS \ (1) iks,lh (2) fyfy,lh (3) lksySul s h (4) QScslh Ans.
(2)
58.
Which of the following is not a stem modification? (1) Flattened structures of Opuntia (2) Pitcher of Nepenthes (3) Thorns of citrus (4) Tendrils of cucumber
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u ,d rus dk :ikUrj.k ugha gS (1) vksiaf'k;
dh piVh lajpuk
(2) usiUFkht dk (3) flVªl ds (4) [khjs
?
?kV
dkVs
ds izrku
Ans.
(2)
Sol.
Pitcher of nepenthes is modification of leaf
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59.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from : (1) Pseudomonas putida
(2) Thermus aquaticus
(3) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
(4) Bacillus subtilis
VSd ikWfyejst ,Utkbe fdlls izkIr fd;k tkrk gS \ (1) L;wMkseksukl (3) fFk;kscSflyl
I;wfVMk QsjksDlhMsUl
(2) FkeZl
,DosfVdl
(4) cSflyl
lcfVfyl
Ans.
(2)
60.
Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as : (1) Scales
(2) Cladodes
(3) Phyllodes
(4) Phylloclades
ifÙk;ksa dk dk;Z djus okys ] piVs gjs vax esa :ikUrfjr rus dks D;k dgk tkrk gS \ (1) 'kYd (3) i.kkZHk
(2) ik.kkZHk
oUr
(4) i.kkZHk
ioZ
LRkEHk
Ans.
(4)
61.
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self, If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to : (1) Active immunity (2) Allergic response (3) Graft rejection (4) Auto-immune disease
mPprj d'ks:fd;kas esa] izfrj{kk ra=k Lo&dksf'kdkvksa vkSj xSj&dksf'kdkvks a esa Hksn dj ldrk gSA ;fn ra=k dk vkuqoaf'kd vilkekU;rk ds dkj.k ;g xq .k u"V gks tk, vkSj og Lo&dks f'kdkvks a dks u"V djus yxs rks blds ifj.kkeLo:i D;k gksxk\ (1) lfØ;
izfrj{kk
(2) ,sythZ vuqfØ;k (3) fujksi
vLohdkj dj nsuk
(4) Loizfrj{kk Ans. Sol.
fodkj
(4) If self & non-self recognization power is lost than immune cells can attack our own body cells and cause auto immune disease
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62.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature. (1) When written by hand, the names are to be underlined (2) Biological names can be written in any l anguage (3) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet (4) The names are written in Latin and are it alicised
uke&i)fr dqn fo'ks"k lkoZtfud ekU; fu;eksa }kjk fu/kkZfjr gks rh gSA fuEufyf[kr ea as ls dkSu lk ,d dFku uke i)fr ds fu;eksa ds fo:) gS\ (1) uke
dks tc gkFk ls fy[krs gS rks mls js[kkafdr fd;k tkrk gS
(2) tSfod
uke dks fdlh Hkh Hkk"kk eas fy[kk tk ldrk gSA
(3) tSfod
uke esa igyk 'kCn oa'k uke vkSj nwljk 'kCn tkfr ladsr in dks iz nf'kZr djrk gSSA
(4) ukeksa
dks ySfVu Hkk"kk esa vkSj frjNs v{kjksa esa fy[kk tkrk gS
Ans.
(2)
63.
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires : (1) Water (2) Wind (3) Insects (4) Birds
czk;ksQkbV vkSj VsfjMksQkbV esa uj ;qXed ds vfHkxeu ds fy, fdldh vko';drk gksrh gS \ (1) ty (2) iou (3) dhV (4) i{kh Ans.
(1)
Sol.
64.
In context of Amniocentesis,which of the following statement is incorrect ? (1) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate. (2) It is usually done when a woman is between 14 -16 weeks pregnant. (3) It is used for prenatal sex determination. (4) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.
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Code-C,R,Y
mYcos/ku ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku xyr gS \ (1) bls
[kaMrkyq ¼Dys¶V iSysV½ dk irk yxkus ds fy, iz;qDr fd;k tkrk gSA
(2) ;g
vkerkSj ls rc fd;k tkrk gS tc L=kh dks
(3) bls
izloiwoZ fyax&fu/kkZj.k ds fy, iz;qDr fd;k tkrk gSA
(4) bls
Mkmu flaMªkse dk irk yxkus ds fy, iz;qDr fd;k tkrk gSA
Ans.
14 -16
lIrkg ds chp dk xHkZ gks rk gSA
(1)
Sol.
Cleft palate is a structural defect and cannot be determined by amniocentesis.
65.
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the : (1) acidic cells (2) gastrin secreting cells (3) parietal cells (4) peptic cells
vkek'k; esa tBj jl dk L=kko gksrk gS % (1) vEy
dksf'kdkvks a ls
(2) xSfLVªu
dk L=kko djus okyh dks f'kdkvksa ls
(3) fHkÙkh;
dksf'kdkvksa ls
(4) isfIVd
dksf'kdkvksa ls
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
gastric acid is HCl secreted by parietal or oxyntic cells.
66.
Spindle fibres attach on to: (1) Kinetosome of the chromosome (2) Telomere of the chromosome (3) Kinetochore of the chromosome (4) Centromere of the chromosome
rdZq:ih rarq yxrs gSA (1) xq.klw=k
ds dkbusVkslkse ij
(2) xq.klw=k
ds vaR;ka'k ij
(3) xq.klw=k
ds dkbuksVksdksj ij
(4) xq.klw=k
ds lw=kdsUæ ij
Ans. (3)
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Code-C,R,Y
Sol.
kinetochore of chromosome facilitates the attachment of spindle fibre (chromosomal fibre) and pole
67.
Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India? (1) Sea- horse (2) Gangetic shark (3) River dolphin (4) Blue whale
Hkkjr dk jk"Vªh; tyh; izk.kh dkSu lk gS? (1) leqæh- ?kksM+k (2) xaxk
dh 'kkdZ
(3) unh
dh MkWfYQu
(4) Cyw Ans.
g~osy
(3)
Sol.
68.
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane? (1) Nuclei (2) Mitochondria (3) Chloroplasts (4) Lysosomes
fuEufyf[kr es ls dkSu lk dksf'kdkax dsoy ,dy dyk ls f?kjk gksrk gS ? (1) dsUæd (2) lw=kdf.kdk (3) gfjryod (4) y;udk; Ans.
(3)
Sol.
Except Lysosome, all three are bounded by double membrane
69.
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked togetherby : (1) Disulphide bridges
(2) Hydrogen bonds
(3) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Covalentbond
ekuo bUlqfyu ds nks ikWyhisIVkbM vkil es fdlds }kjk la;ksftr gksrs gSa\ (1) MkblYQkbM
lsrq
(3) QkLQksMkb,LVj
cU/k
(2) gkbMªkstu
cU/k
(4) lgla;ksth
cU/k
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Ans. (1) 70.
In which of the following, all three are macronutrients ? (1) Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus (2) boron, zinc, manganese. (3) Iron,copper, molybdepum (4) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lHkh rhu cgÙkiks"kd gSa\ (1) ukbVªkstu, fufdy, QkLQksjl (2) cksjkWu
ftad, eS axthu
(3) ykSg, rkez, eksyhCMsue (4) eksyhCMsue , eSXuhf'k;e , eSaxuht Ans.
(1) or bonus
Sol.
No answer is correct
71.
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids? (1) Their RNA is of high molecular weight (2) They lack a protein coat (3) They are smaller than viruses (4) They cause infections
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk dFku okbjkW;M ds fo"k; es xyr gS ? (1) mudk RNA mPp (2) muesa
vkf.od Hkkj okyk gksrk gSA
izksVhu vkoj.k dk vHkko gksrk gSA
(3) ;s
fo"kk.kqvksa ls vis{kkÑr NksVs gksrs gSA
(4) ;sa
laØe.k djrs gSaA
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
In viroid, RNA is of low molecular weight
72.
Analogous structures are a result of : (1) Stabilizing selection
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Shared ancestry
leofÙk lajpuk,a fdl dkj.k mRiUu gksrh gS\ (1) fLFkjdkjh
oj.k
(2) vilkjh
(3) vfHklkjh
fodkl ds
(4) lk>k
fodkl ds
oa'kijaijk
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Code-C,R,Y
Ans. (3) 73.
Select the incorrect statement: (1) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells (2) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells whi ch help in spermiogenesis (3) LH triggers ovulation in ovary. (4) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
xyr dFku dks pqfu, (1) LH yhfMx
dksf'kdkvksa ls ,aMªkstu ds L=kko dks iz sfjr djrk gSA
(2) FSH lVksZyh (3) LH vaMk'k;
dksf'kdkvksa dks míhfir djrk gS tks 'kqØk.kqtuu es lgk;rk djrk gS A es vaMksRltZu dks izsfjr djrk gSA
(4) LH vkSj FSH iqVd
voLFkk ds nkS jku /khsjs-/khjs ?kVrk tkrk gSA
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
LH and FSH both increase during follicular phase.
74.
Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? . (1) Warm blooded nature
(2) Ossified endoskeleton
(3) Breathing using lungs
(4) Viviparity
fuEufyf[kr y{k.kksa esa ls dkSu lk ,d y{k.k if{k;ksa vkSj Lru/kkfj;ksa nks uksa esa ugha ik;k tkrk gS (1) fu;rrkih (3) QsQM+ aks
izÑfr
(2) vfLFkHkwr
}kjk 'olu
var% dadky
(4) lthoiztdrk
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
birds are oviparous while mammals are oviparous(prototherians) and viviparous(metatherians
and
eutherians).
75.
Which of the following statements is not correct? (1) Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species. , (2) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style. (3) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/ nectar robbers. (4) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil
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fuEufyf[kr es als dkSu lk dFku lR; ugha gS\ (1) dqN
lfjli dqN ikni tkfr;ksa eas ijkx.k djrs gq, crk;s x;s gSA
(2) cgqr
lkjh tkfr;ksa ds ijkxd.k ,d iq"i ds orhZdkxz ij va dqfjr gks ldrs gaS ijUrq mlh tkfr ds ijkxd.kksa dh
dsoy ,d ijkx –ufydk ofrZdk esa vkxs c<+rh gSA (3) dhV
tks fcuk ijkx.k fd;s ijkx ;k edjan dks xzg.k djrs gS mUgsa ijkx / edjan pksj dgrs gSa
(4) ijkxd.k
vadqj.k rFkk ijkx ufydk o f)] ijkxd.k rFkk L=khdslj dh ikjLifjd fØ;k ds QyLo:i mRiUu
jklk;fud ?kVdksa }kjk fu;af=kr gksrh gSA Ans.
(2)
Sol.
76.
Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of : (1) Apomixis
(2) Sporulation
(3) Budding
(4) Somatic hybridization
iq"ih ikniks a es fcuk fu"kspu ds cht cuuk fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh izfØ;k gSa\
Ans.
(1) vlaxtuu
(2) chtk.kqdtuu
(3) eqdqyu
(4) dkf;d
ladj.k
(1)
Sol.
77.
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive? (1)
Vasectomy
prevents spermatogenesis
(2)
Barrier methods
prevent fertilization
(3)
Intra uterine devices
increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
(4)
Hormonal
Prevent/retard entry of
Contraceptives
sperms, prevent ovulation
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and fertilization
fuEufyf[kr mikxeksa esa ls dkSu lk mikxe fdlh xHkZfujks/kd dks ifjHkkf"kr ugha djrk ? (1)
'kqØokgd mPNsnu
'kqØk.kqtuu ugha gksus nssrs
(2)
jks/k ¼csfj;j½ fof/k;k¡
fu"kspu jksdrh gSaA
(3)
var% xHkkZ'k;h ;qfDr;k¡
'kqØk.kqvks a dh Hk{kdksf'kdrk c<+k nsrh gS] 'kqØk.kqvks dh xfr'khyrk ,oa fu"kspu {kerk dk eanu djrk gSA
(4)
gkWeksZuh xHkZfujks/kd
'kqØk.kqvks a ds izos'k dks jksdrs gS / mldh nj dks /khek dj nsrs gS] vaMksRlxZ vkSj fu"kspu ugha gksus nsrs
Ans
(1)
Sol.
vasectomy causes sterilization by preventing transfer of sperms into semen
78.
The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of : (1) Cortisol and Cortisone (2) Melatonin and Serotonin (3) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine . (4) Estrogen and Progesterone
vehuks a vEy fVªIVksQSu fdlds la'ys"k.k ds fy, iwoZxkeh gksrk gS \ (1) dksfVZlksy
vkSj dksfVZlksu
(2) esykVksfuu
vkSj lsjksVksfuu
(3) Fkk;jkWfDlu (4) bZLVªkstu
vkSj VªkbZvk;ksMksFkk;jksfuu
vkSj izkstsLVsjkWu
Ans. (2) Sol.
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79.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in : (1) Death of fish due to lack of oxygen. (2) Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom. (3) Increased population of aquatic food web organisms. (4) An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients
,d unh esa tc dkcZfud vif'k"V ls Hkjiw j ?kjsywokfgr ey cgdj fxjrk gks] rks mldk ifj. kkke D;k gksxk \ (1) vkWDlhtu
dh deh ds dkj.k eNfy;kW ej tk;saxhA
(2) 'kSoky
izLQqVu ds dkj.k unh tYnh gh lw[k tk;sxh A
(3) tyh;
Hkkstu dh lef"V esa of) gks tk;sxhA
(4) ck;ksfMxzsMscy Ans.
iks"k.k ds dkj.k eNyh dk mRiknu c<+ tk;sxkA
(1)
Sol.
80.
Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that: (1) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition. (2) More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition. (3) Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences. (4) No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
Li/khZ viotZu dk xkWls fu;e dgrk gS fd (1) vis{kkÑr
cM+s vkdkj ds tho Li/kkZ }kjk NksVs tarqvks a dks ckgj fudky nsrs gSaA
(2) vf/kd
la[;k esa ik, tkus okyh Lih'kht Li/kkZ }kjk de la[;k es a ik, tkus okyh Lih'kht dks vioftZr dj nsxhA
(3) leku
lalk/kuksa ds fy, Li/kkZ ml Lih'kht dks vioftZr dj nsxh tks fHkUu izdkj ds Hkkstu ij Hkh thfor jg
ldrh gSA (4) dksbZ
Hkh nks Lih'kht ,d gh fudsr es vlhfer vof/k ds fy, ugha jg ldrh D;kasfd lhekdkjh lalk/ku leku gh
gksr s gSaA Ans.
(4)
Sol. 81.
Asthma may be attributed to : (1) accumulation of fluid in the lungs (2) bacterial infection of the lungs (3) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs (4) inflammation of the trachea
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vLFkek dk dkj.k D;k gksrk gS\ (1) QsQMks a ds
Hkhrj ikuh ,df=kr gks tkuk
(2) QsQMks
dk thok.kq }kjk laØe.k
(3) QsQM+ks
es ekLV dksf'kdkvksa dh ,ythZ vfHkfØ;k
(4) 'okluyh
dh 'kksFk
Ans.
(3 or 4)
Sol.
asthma is an allergic disease caused by allergens and characterized by inflammation of tracheobronchial tree.
82.
The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called (1) Corona (2) Carina (3) Pappus (4) Vexillum
iSfifyvksuslh okys nyiqat es ekud ny dks vU; fdl uke ls tkuk tkrk gS\ (1) dksjksuk (2) dSfjuk (3) iSil (4) oSDlhye Ans.
(4)
Standard or vexillum
Wing or alae Keel or carina Sol.
83.
Papilionaceous corolla
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease? (1) RNase (2) Hind II (3) Protease
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(4) DNase I
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk ,d izfrca/k ,aMksU;wfDy,t gSA (1) vkj,u,t (2) fgUn II (3) izksfV,t (4) Mh,u,t I Ans.
(2)
Sol.
84.
It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because: (1) The efficiency of muscles in large animals is le ss than in the small animals. (2) It is easier to carry a small body weight. (3) Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate. (4) Small animals have a lower O 2 requirement.
cMs + vkdkj ds tarqvksa d eqdkcys es NksVs vkdkj ds tarqvksa d fy, igkM+h ij p<+uk vklku gksrk gSA D;ksafd (1) NksVs
tarqvksa ds eqdkcys es cM+s tarqvksa dh isf'k;ksa dh dk;Z{kerk de gksrh gSA
(2) NksVs
'kjhj ds Hkkj dks Åij ys tkuk vis{kkÑr vklku gksrk gSA
(3) NksV
vdkj okys i'kqvksa dh mikip;h nj vis{kkÑr vf/kd gksrh gSA
(4) NksVs
vkdkj ds tarqvksa dh O2 vko';drk vis{kkÑr de gksrh gSA
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
smaller animals have higher BMR related with sustained energy production and delayed muscle fatigue
85.
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life : (a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes. (b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ? (1) Both (a) and (b) are false. (2) (a) is correct but (b) is false. (3) (b) is correct but (a) is false. (4) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
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thou dh mRifÙk ds lanHkZ es nks dFku fn;s x, gSa% (a) iFoh
ij izdV gksus okys vkja fHkdÙke tho gjs ugha Fks vkSj laHkor;k vok;oh FksA
(b) izFke
izdV gksus okys Loiks"kh tho jlksLoiks"kh Fks ftUgksaus vkWDlhtu dk mRltZu ugha fd;k A
mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu lk fuEufyf[kr dFku lgh gS\ (1) (a) vkSj (b) nksuksa
gh xyr gSaA
(2) (a) lgh
gS ysfdu (b) xyr gSA
(3) (b) lgh
gS ysfdu (a) xyr gSA
(4) (a) vkSj (b) nks uksa gh
lgh gSaA
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
First originated organism was prokaryote chemoheterotroph and oxygen was not available on earth at that time so it must be anaerobic too. Even the first autotroph was dependent on chemicals so oxygen is not released
86.
A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in (1) Polyteny (2) Aneuploidy (3) Polyploidy (4) Somaclonal variation
[ksr ls yk;s x, ,d ikni dks f'kdk esa ,d fo|kFkhZ }kjk vaR;koLFkk ns[kh x;hA og vius f'k{kd ls dgrk gS fd ;g dksf'kdk vUR;koLFkk ij vU; dksf'kdkvksa ls fHkUu gSA blesa dksf'kdk IysV ugah curh vkSj bl dkj.k bl dksf'kdk esa vU; foHkktu okyh dksf'kdkvksa dh vis{kk vf/kd xq.klw=k gSA bldk ifj.kke D;k gksxk\ (1) cgqiV~Vrk (2) vlqxqf.krk (3) cgqxfq .krk (4) dk;Dyksuh Ans.
fofHkUurk
(3)
Sol.
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87.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers: (1) Methane (2) Nitrous oxide (3) Ozone (4) Ammonia
okrkoj.k esa fdl xSl dh deh gksus ij Ropk ds dS alj ds volj c<+ tk,axsa\ (1) ehFksu (2) ukbVªl
vkWDlkbM
(3)vkstksu (4) veksfu;k Ans.
(3)
Sol.
88.
Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:
la;qDr ou izcU/ku dh /kkj.k Hkkjr es fdl nkSjku izLrkfor dh x;h Fkh\ (1) 1990s (2) 1960s (3) 1970s (4) 1980s Ans.
(4)
89.
Which one of the following is the starter codon?
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk ,d izkjEHkd izdwV gS\ (1) UAG
(2) AUG
(3) UGA
(4) UAA
Ans.
(2)
90.
The term ecosystem was coined by : (1) E. Warming
(2) E.P.Odum
(3) A.G. Tansley
(4) E. Haeckel
bdksflLVe (ikfjrU=k) 'kCn lcls igys fdlus cuk;k Fkk\ (1) bZ. Okfeax
(2) bZ. ih . vksMe
(3) ,. th . Vkalys
(4) bZ. fgdy
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Ans. (3)
PART B – PHYSICS 91.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop ?
f=kT;k ds fdlh Å/okZ/kj ik'k (ywi) esa og ik'k dks iw.kZ dj lds ? R
(1)
5gR
(2)
m
gR
nzO;eku ds fdlh fi.M+ dks fdl fuEure osx ls iz os'k djuk pkfg, fd (3)
2gR
(4)
3gR
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
To complete the vertical loop, the minimum speed required at the lowest point =
5gR
So ans is (1) 92.
If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is :
;fn nks lfn'kksa ds ;sx dk ifjek.k mu nks lfn'kksa ds vUrj d s ifjek.k ds cjkcj gS] rks bu lfn'kksa ds chp dks.k gSA Ans.
(1) 180° (3) !
Sol.
!
(2) 0° !
(3) 90°
!
A -B % A&B 2
2
2
2
(A) + (B) + 2(A)(B)cos. = (A) + (B) 2cos. = 0 93.
(4) 45°
– 2(A)(B)cos.
/ . = 90° 7
At what height from the surface of earth the gravitational potential and the value of g are –5.4 × 10 J 2 2 kg and 6.0 ms respectively ? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km. –
–
iFoh ds i"B ls fdruh Å¡pkbZ ij xq:Roh; foHko vkSj xq:Roh; Roj.k 2 6.0 ms gksrs gS ? iFoh dh f=kT;k 6400 km yhft,A
g
ds eku Øe'k%
– 5.4
× 107 J kg
2
–
rFkk
–
Ans.
(1) 2000 km (2)
Sol.
&
(2) 2600 km
(3) 1600 km
(4) 1400 km
GM 7 = 5.4 × 10 r
GM = 6 r2 dividing both the equations, r = 9000 km. so height from the surface = 9000 – 6400 = 2600 km
&
94.
A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with 3
–
each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is
fdlh yEch ifjukfydk es a Qsjksa dh la[;k 1000 gSA tc bl ifjukfydk ls 4A /kkjk izokfgr gksrh gS] rc bl ifjukfydk ds izR;sd Qsjs ls lac) pqEcdh; ¶yDl 4 × 10 3 Wb gksrk gSA bl ifjukfydk dk Lo&izsjdRo gS : –
(1) 1H
(2) 4H
(3) 3 H
(4) 2H
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| NEET-2016
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
0self = Li
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
3
–
(4 × 10 )(1000) = (L)(4) L = 1 Henry 95.
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 1F and a resistor. 40 2 are connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is
fdlh L=kksr ftldk emf, V = 10 sin 340 t gS] ls Js.kh esa 20 izfrjks/kd la;ksftr gSA bl izR;korhZ /kkjk ifjiFk es a 'kfDr {k; gSA Ans.
(1) 0.89 W (2)
(2) 0.51 W
mH
dk iz sjd,
(3) 0.67W
50 1F
dk la/kkfj=k rFkk
402 dk
(4) 0.76W
L3 = 6.82
R=400 2
Sol.
1/c3=58.8 So | z |% (40)2 - (58.8 – 6.8)2 % 65 i0 %
v0
%
|z|
10 A 65
/
irms %
i0 2
%
10 65 2
2
# 10 $ ( 4 40 % 0.46watt ) 65 2 *
2 Ploss % rrms R%'
So the nearest answer will be (2) 96.
Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two mass less strings of lengths ", are initially at a distance d(d << ") a part because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between t he spheres, as : 1
–
(1) v 5 x
1/2
(2) v 5 x
(3) v 5 x
–
(4) v 5 x
1/2
fdlh mHk;fu"B fcUnq ls] yEckbZ " dh nks æO;ekughu Mksfj;ksa ls fuyafcr] nks loZle vkos f'kr xksys] vU;ksU; izfrd"kZ.k ds dkj.k] vkjEHk esa ,d nwljs ls
d(d<< ")
nwjh ij gSA nksuksa gh xksyksa ls ,d fu;r nj ls vkos'k dk {kj.k vkjEHk
gksrk gS] vkSj blds ifj.kkeLo:i xksys ,d nwljs dh vksj osx :i esa osx fopj.k fdl :i esa gksrk gS ?
v ls vkrs gS A
rc xksyksa ds chp dh nwjh]
x ds
Qyu ds
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Ans. Sol.
(1) v 5 x (4)
| 01-05-2016 | 1/2
–
(2) v 5 x
(3) v 5 x
Code-C,R,Y –
(4) v 5 x
1/2
"
Tcos.
T
.
kq2
Tsin.
x2
x
mg Tsin. =
kq2 x2
Tcos. = mg Dividing the equations tan. =
/ / /
kq2 mgx
2
here tan. 6 sin. =
x 2"
x kq2 = 2 2" x 3/2
q 5 x dq 3 1/ 2 # dx $ 5 x ' ( dt 2 ) dt *
dx 5 x dt
1/2
–
/
97. 1 2
V 21F
81F
A capacitor of 21F is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is : (1) 80% (2) 0%
(3) 20%
(4) 75%
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| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
1 2
V 81F
21F
vkjs[k esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj 21F /kkfjrk ds fdlh la/kkfj=k dk vkos 'ku fd;k x;k gSA tc fLop tkrk gS] rks blesa lafpr ÅtkZ dk iz fr'kr {k; gksxkA Ans.
(1) 80% (1)
(2) 0%
Sol.
Initial energy stored in the 2 1F capacitor is = Energy less = Eloss =
fLFkfr
2 ij
?kqek;k
(4) 75%
1 2 2 (21)V = V 1J 2
+ 21 ,+81 , C1C2 2 2 (V1 – V2) = (V – 0) 2 + C1 - C2 , 2 + 21 - 81 ,
5 2 V 1J 4
% loss =
98.
(3) 20%
S dks
5 4 V2 V2
× 100 = 80%
A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r % cos 3txˆ - sin 3tyˆ . Where 3 is a constant. !
Which of the following is true?
!
(1) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin. !
(2) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r . !
(3) Velocity is acceleration both are parallel to r . !
(4) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
dksbZ d.k bl izdkj xeu djrk gS fd mldk fLFkfr lfn'k
!
r % cos 3txˆ - sin 3tyˆ
}kjk fu:fir fd;k x;k gS] ;gk¡
3 ,d fu;rkad gS?
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk dFku lR; gS ? !
(1) osx r
ds yEcor~ gS rFkk Roj.k ew y fcUnq ls nwj dh vksj funsZf'kr gSA ! (2) osx vkSj Roj.k nksuksa gh r ds yEcor~ gSaA ! (3) osx vkSj Roj.k nksuksa gh r ds lekUrj gSA ! (4) osx r ds yEcor~ gS rFkk Roj.k ew y fcUnq dh vksj funsZf'kr gSA Ans.
(4)
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| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
!
Sol.
V % cos 3t ˆi - sin 3tjˆ !
!
dr V% = – 3sin3t ˆi + 3cos3t jˆ dt ! !
dV 2 = – 3 cos3t ˆi a% dt ! !
!
–
32sin3t jˆ
!
since r.V = 0 so r 7r V !
!
and a % – 32 r !
so a will be always aiming towards the origin. 99.
From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about at perpendicular axis, passing through the centre ?
nzO;eku M rFkk f=kT;k R dh fdlh fMLd ls R O;kl dk dksbZ oÙkkdkj fNnz bl izkdj dkVk tkrk gS fd mldh usfe fMLd ds dsUnz ls xqtjsA fMCcs ds 'ks "k Hkkx dk] fMLd ds yEcor~ mlds ds Unz ls xqtjus okys v{k ds ifjr% tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ D;k gS ? 2
Ans.
2
(1) 9MR /32 (3)
(2) 15MR /32
2
(3) 13MR /32
2
(4) 11 MR /32
M, R M/4
R/2
Sol. MR2 I1 = 2 2
# M $# R $ ' 4 (' 2 ( # M $# R $2 3MR2 ) *) * I2 = ' 4 (' 2 ( % 32 2 ) *) * Inet = I1 – I2 =
100.
MR2 2
–
3MR2 13MR2 % 32 32
so answer is 3.
The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is :
iFoh ij iyk;u osx (ve) rFkk ml xzg ij iyk;u osx iFoh dh rqyuk es a nks xqus gS ? (1) 1 : Ans.
2
(2) 1 : 2
(vp)
es a D;k vuqikr gks xk, ftldh f=kT;k vkSj vkSlr ?kuRo
(3) 1 : 2 2
(4) 1 : 4
(3)
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Sol.
Ve =
2G 4 8 4
2GM % R
/
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
4 9R3 3
R
Ve 5 R 8
R 8 V1 % 1 1 V2 R2 82
/
V1 1 % V2 2 2
so answer is 3. 101.
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf's is :
fdlh fOkHkoekih ds rkj dh yEckbZ 100 cm gS rFkk blds fljksa ds chp dksbZ fu;r foHkokUrj cuk, j[kk x;k gSA nks lsyksa dks Js.khØe esa igys ,d nw ljs dh lgj;rk djrs gq, vkSj fQj ,d&nwljs dh foijhr fn'kkvksa esa la;ksftr fd;k x;k gSA bu nksuksa izdj.kksa esa 'kwU;&fo{ksi fLFkfr rkj ds /kukRed fljs ls 50 cm vkSj 10 cm nwjh ij izkIr gksrh gSA nksuksa lsyksa dh emf dk vuqikr gS : Ans. Sol.
(1) 3 : 2 (1) E1 + E2 = K(50)
(2) 5 : 1
(3) 5 : 4
(4) 3 : 4
E1 – E2 = K(10) E1 - E2 5 % E1 & E2 1
/
102.
E1 3 % E2 2
A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed 1 of 15 ms . Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is : 1 (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms ) –
–
vkofÙk dh /ofu mRiUu djus okyk dksbZ lk;ju fdlh izs{kd ls ,d pV~Vku dh vksj 15 ms 1 dh pky ls xfreku gSA rc ml /ofu dh vkofÙk] ftls pV~Vku ls ijkofrZr izfr/ofu ds :i es a og izs{kd lwurk gS] D;k gksxh ? 1 (ok;q eas /ofu dh pky = 330 ms yhft,) –
800 Hz
–
Ans.
(1) 885 Hz (4)
(2) 765 Hz
(3) 800 Hz
(4) 838 Hz
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| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
15 m/sec. Sol.
f0
Frequency at the wall will be
# v & v0 $ # 330 & 0 $ ( % 800 ' ( ) 330 & 15 * ) v & vs *
f ' % f0 '
# 330 $ ( = 838 Hz ) 315 *
f' = 800 '
Since the observer and the wall are stationary so frequency of echo observed by the observer will a lso be 838 Hz. 103.
To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is : A B
Y
C (1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 (3) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
uhps fn, x, ifjiFk es a] fuxZr
(2) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 (4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 1 izkIr
djus ds fy, fuos'k dk lgh p;u gS %
A B
Y
C
Ans.
(1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 (3) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0 (1) A=1 Output = 0 +1=1
(2) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 (4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
Output = 1.1=1
Sol. B=0 C=1
So ans will be (1)
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104.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a' the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximu m is observed at an angle of : 1# 3 $ (1) sin ' ( )4* –
1
–
(2) sin
# 1$ ' 4( ) *
1
–
(3) sin
# 2$ '3( ) *
1#2$ (4) sin ' ( )3* –
tc pkSM+kbZ 'a' dh fdlh ,dy f>jh ij 5000 Å rjaxnS/;Z dk izdk'k vkiru djrk gS] rks f>jh ds dkj.k mRiUu foorZu iSVuZ esa 30° ds dksa.k ij igyk fufEU"B fn[kkbZ nsrk gSA igyk f}rh;d mfPP"B ftl dksa.k ij fn[kkbZ nsxk] og gS % 1# 3 $ (1) sin ' ( )4* –
1
–
(2) sin
# 1$ ' 4( ) *
1
–
(3) sin
# 2$ '3( ) *
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
Path difference between the extreme rays at first minima = a sin. = : a sin(30°) = :
/
1#2$ (4) sin ' ( )3* –
a = 2:
Path difference between the extreme rays at first secondary maxima = a sin .' = (2:)sin.' =
105.
3: / 2
3: 2
#3$ .' = sin 1 ' ( )4* –
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength :' the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2 :, the stopping potential is
V . The threshold 4
wavelength for the metallic surface is : (1) 3:
(2) 4:
(3) 5:
(4)
5 : 2
tc fdlh /kkfRod i"B dks rajxnS/;Z : ds fofdj.kksa ls iznhIr fd;k tkrk gS] rks fujks/kh foHko rajxnS/;Z 2: ds fofdj.kksa ls iznhIr fd;k tk,] tks fujks/kh foH ko
V 4
V gSA
;fn blh i "B dks
gks tkrk gSA bl /kkfRod i "B dh nsgyh rajxnS/;Z
gS % (1) 3:
(2) 4:
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
KEmax. = eVst = hc
–
;
# V $ hc (% ) 4 * 2:
–
eV = e'
:
hc
:
–
(3) 5:
(4)
5 : 2
;
...(i)
; ...(ii)
Solving equation (i) and (ii)
; =
hc hc % 3: : th
/
:th = 3:
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106.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
When an <-particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity ' v ' bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze' its distance of closet approach from the nucleus depends on m as : (1) m
(2)
1 m
(3)
1 m
(4)
1 m2
tc æO;eku 'm' rFkk osx ' v ' ls xfreku dksbZ <-d.k 'Ze' vkos'k ds fdlh Hkkjh ukfHkd ij ceckjh djrk gS] rks mldh ukfHkd ls fudVre mixeu dh nwjh m ij bl izdkj fuHkZj djrh gS% (1) m Ans. Sol.
(2)
1 m
(3)
1 m
(4)
1 m2
(2) At closest approach KE gets converted to PE 1 k(2e)(ze) mV 2 % 2 r
107.
/
m<
1 r
or
r<
1 m
Match the corresponding entries of column –1 with column –2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]
dkWye –1 dh laxr izfof"V;ksa dk feyku dkWye –2 dh izfof"V;ksa ls dhft;sA [;gk¡ (A)
niZ.kksa }kjk mRiUu vko/kZu gSa ]
Column –2 (a) Convex mirror
(C)
1 2 m = +2
(D)
m= -
(A)
m = –2
(B)
m= &
(C)
m = +2
(D)
m= -
(1)
A ! c and d;
B ! b and d;
C ! b and c; D ! a and d
(2)
A ! b and c;
B ! b and c;
C ! b and d; D ! a and d
(3)
A ! a and c;
B ! a and d;
C ! a and b; D ! c and d
(4)
A ! a and d;
B ! b and c;
C ! b and d; D ! b and c
(1)
A ! c o d;
B ! b o d;
C ! b o c; D ! a o d
(2)
A ! b o c;
B ! b o c;
C ! b o d; D ! a o d
(3)
A ! a o c;
B ! a o d;
C ! a o b; D ! c o d
(4)
A ! a o d;
B ! b o c;
C ! b o d; D ! b o c
(B)
Ans.
Column –1 m = –2
m
m= &
1 2 1 2
1 2
(b)
Concave mirror
(c)
Real image
(d)
Virtual image
(a)
mÙky niZ.k
(b)
vory niZ.k
(c)
okLrfod izfrfcEc
(d)
vkHkklh izfrfcEc
(2)
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| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Sol.
(A) m = –2, so image is magnified and inverted. Which is possible only for concave mirror. since image is i inverted so it will be real. 1 (B) M = & , so image is inverted and diminished. since image is inverted, so it will be real, and the 2 mirror will be concave. (C) M = +2, image is magnified so the mirror will be concave. Image is erect so it will be virtu al. 1 (D) m = - , image is erect so image will be virtual. Image is virtual and dimin ished, so the mirror 2 should be convex. Ans. will be (2)
108.
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 4 8 × 10 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion ? –
æO;eku dk dksbZ d.k 6.4 ls-eh yEch f=kT;k ds o Ùk ds vuqfn'k fdlh fu;r Li'kZ&js[kh; Roj.k ls xfr djrk gSA ;fn xfr vkjEHk djus ds i'pkr~ nks ifjØek,sa iwjh djus ij d.k dh xfrt ÅtkZ 8 × 10 4 J gks tkrh gS] rks bl Roj.k dk ifjek.k D;k gS\ 10 g
–
2
Ans. Sol.
2
(1) 0.2 m/s (2)
(2) 0.1 m/s
(3) 0.15 m/s
2
2
(4) 0.18 m/s
Wall = KE = 1 2 (mat)(s) = mv 2 3
2
–
–
–
(10 × 10 )(at) (49 × 6.4 × 10 ) = 8 × 10
/
4
at = 0.1 m/s m/s
Ans. will be (2) 109.
A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sin3t is applied across an ideal capacitor C :
dksbZ y?kq flXuy oksYVrk
V(t) = V0 sin3t
fdlh vkn'kZ la/kkfj=k
C ds fljksa
ij vuqiz;qDr dh x;h gS :
(1) Current >(t), leads voltage V(t) by 180 ° (2) Current >(t), lags voltage V(t) by 90° (3) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source. (4) Current >(t) is in phase with voltage V(t) (1) /kkjk >(t),
oksYVrk V(t) ls 180° vxz gSA (2) /kkjk >(t), oksYVrk V(t) ls 90° i'p gSA (3) ,d iw. kZ pØ esa la/kkfj=k C oksYVrk L=kksr ls dksbZ ÅtkZ miHkqDr ugha djrkA (4) /kkjk >(t), oksYVrk V(t) dh dyk esa gSA Ans. Sol.
(3) Capacitor does not consume energy effectively over full cycles
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110.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first ?
dsbZ fMLd vkSj dksbZ xksyk] ftudh f=kT;k,sa leku ijUrq æO;eku fHkUu gSa] leku mUurka'k vkSj yEckbZ ds nks vkur leryksa ij yq<+drs gSaA bu nksuksa fi.Mksa esa ls ryh rd igys dkSu igq¡psxk? (1) Depends on their masses (3) Sphere
(2) Disk (4) both reach at the same time
(1) buds æO;ekuksa
(2) fMLd
ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(3) xksyk Ans. Sol.
(4) nksuksa ,d
gh le; igq¡psaxs
(3) Time does not depend on mass, else
# k 2 $ t 5 '1 - 2 ( ' R ( ) * k2 R2 111.
is least for sphere and hence least time is t aken by sphere
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are <1 and <2 . Lengths of brass and steel rods are
" 1 and "2 respectively.
If ("2 –
"1)
is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following
relations holds good ?
ihry ¼czkl½ vkSj LVhy dh NM+ksa ds vuqnS/;Z izlkj ds xq.kkad Øe'k% <1 vkSj <2 gSaA ihry vkSj LVhy dh NM+ksa dh yEckbZ;k¡ Øe'k%
" 1
vkSj "2 gSaA ;fn
("2 –
"1)
dks lHkh rkiksa ds fy, leku cuk;k tk;s] rc uhps fn, x, laca/kksa esa ls
dkSu&lk lR; gS \ (1) <1"1 = <2 Ans.
(1)
Sol.
"2? = "2 (1 "1? = "1(1
(2) <1"2 = <2 "1
"2
2
2
(3) <1"2 = <2 "1
(4) <1
2
"2 =
<22 "1
+ <2(@.))
+ <1(@.))
"2? – "1? =( "2 – "1)
+ ( <2"2 – <1 "1)@.
As the length difference is independent of temperature difference hence
<1 "2 – <1"1 = 0 / 112.
<2"2 = <1"1
A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance :
fdlh [kxksyh; nwjchu ds vfHkn';d vkSj usf=kdk dh Qksd l nw fj;k¡ Øe'k% 40 cm vkSj 4 200 cm nwj fLFkr fdlh fcEc dks ns[kus ds fy,] nksuksa ysalksa ds chp dh nwjh gksuh pkfg, : Ans.
(1) 54.0 cm (1)
(2) 37.3 cm
(3) 46.0 cm
cm
gSaA vfHkn';d ls
(4) 50.0 cm
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Sol.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Tube length = v0 + fe 1 V0
for objective
–
1 1 % u0 f
put u0 = –200 and f = 40 cm we get v0 = 50 cm
/ 113.
L = 54 cm
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. it is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular 2 2 acceleration of 2.0 rad s . Its net acceleration in ms at the end of 2.0 s is approximately : –
–
fojkekoLFkk esa fLFkr 50 cm f=kT;k dh dksbZ ,dleku o Ùkkdkj fMLd vius ry ds yEcor~ vkSj dsUæ ls xqtjus okys v{k ds ifjr% ?kweus ds fy, Lora =k gSA bl fMLd ij dksbZ cy vk?kw.kZ dk;Z djrk gS] tks blesa 2.0 rad s 2 dk fu;r dks.kh; Roj.k mRiUu dj nsrk gSA 2.0 s ds i'pkr~ ms 2 esa bldk usV Roj.k gksxk yxHkx: –
–
Ans. Sol.
(1) 3.0 (2) 8.0 (3) 7.0 (4) 6.0 (2) The angular speed of disc increases with time, and hence centripetal acceleration also anet = ac =
a 2t - a 2c
A2 R
A = tangential speed R = Radius = 0.5 m V = 2m/s at t =2
114.
/
ac = 8m/s ; at = R< = (0.5)(2)
/
anet =
8 2 - 12 ~ 8
A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. it is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is : (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
dksbZ jsfÝtjsVj 4°C vkSj 30°C ds chp dk;Z djrk gSA iz'khru fd, tkus okys LFkku dk rki fu;r j[kus ds fy, 600 dSyksjh Å"ek dks izfr lsd.M ckgj fudkyuk vko';d gksrk gSA blds fy, vko';d 'kfDr pkfg, % : (1 cal = 4.2 Joules yhft;s) Ans.
(1) 2365 W (4)
Sol.
C.O.P. =
(2) 2.365 W
(3) 23.65 W
(4) 236.5 W
T2 Heat extracted % ; (T2 < T1) effort put T1 – T2
for 1 second analysis
/
(600)( 4.2) 277 % Effort put 26
/ Effort put = 236.5 J
/ Power = 236.5 watt
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115.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then : (1) Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas (2) Compressing the gas isothermally will require more w ork to be done (3) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done (4) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work
fdlh xSl dks lerkih; :i ls mlds vk/ks vk;ru rd laihfM+ r fd;k tkrk gSA blh xSl dks i Fkd :i ls :n~/kks"e izfØ;k }kjk mlds vk/ks vk;ru rd laihfM+r fd;k tkrk gSA rc : (1) pkgs lerkih; izfØ;k }kjk laihfMr djsa vFkok :n~/kks"e izfØ;k }kjk laihfMr djsa] fdl izdj.k esa vf/kd dk;Z djus dh vko';drk gksxh] ;g xSl dh ijek.kqdrk ij fuHkZj djsxkA (2) xSl dks lerkih; izfØ;k }kjk laihfMr djus esa vf/kd dk;Z djus dh vko';drk gksxhA (3) xSl dks :n~/kks"e izfØ;k }kjk la ihfMr djus esa vf/kd dk;Z djus dh vko';drk gksxhA (4) xSl dks lerkih; izfØ;k vFkok :n~/kks"e izfØ;k nksuksa esa gh leku dk;Z djus dh vko';drk gks xhA Ans. Sol.
(3) Directly from graph the magnitude of work done = Area under p-v plot is larger for adiabatic compression p Adiabatic Iso thermal
vf
116.
v
vi
The intensity at the maximum in Young's double slit experiment is >0. Distance between two slits is d = 5:, where : is the wavelength of light used is the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a di stance D = 10d ?
;ax ds fdlh f} f>jh iz;ksx esa mfPp"B dh rhoz rk >0 gSA nksu aks f>fj;ksa ds chp dh nwjh d = 5: gS, ;gk¡ : iz;ksx esa mi;ksx fd, x, izdk'k dh rjaxnS/;Z gSA fdlh f>jh ds lkeus nw jh D = 10d ij fLFkr insZ ij rhozrk D;k gksxh ? (1)
>0 2
(2) >0
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
# 9y $ > % >max cos2 ' ( ) B *
/
(3)
B%
>0 4
(4)
3 >0 4
D: % 10: d
y for a position in front of a slit
B
# 5: $ % ' ( % 2.5: 2 ) 2 *
# 9$ % > 0 cos2 ' ( )4*
/ %
# 9(2.5:) $ > % >0 cos2 ' ( ) 10: *
>0 2
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117.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Two non-mixing liquids of densities 8 and n8 (n > 1) are put in container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to
,d nwljs esa fefJr u gks us okys nks nzo] ftuds ?kuRo 8 rFkk n8 (n > 1) gSa] fdlh ik=k esa Hkjs gSA izR;sd nzo dh Å¡pkbZ h gSA yEckbZ L vkSj ?kuRo d ds fdlh csyu dks bl ik=k esa j[kk tkrk gSA ;g csyu ik=k esa bl izdkj jSrjk gS] fd bldk v{k Å/okZ/kj jgrk gS rFkk bldh yEckbZ pL (p < 1) l?ku nzo esa gksrh gSA ?kuRo d dk eku gSA Ans.
(1) {1 + (n – 1)p}8 (1)
(2) {1 + (n + 1)p}8
(3) {2+(n + 1)p}8
(4) {2 + (n – 1)p}8
8 L –pL pL
Sol.
n8 wt of body = upthrust by the two liquids If A = Area of section then (d A.L) g = [ 8A (L – pL) + n8 ApL] g On solving
/ 118.
d = (1+ (n – 1)p)8
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is :
laf/k Mk;ksM dks vkn'kZ ekudj fopkj dhft,A A
AB ls
izokfgr /kkjk dk eku gS % 1k 2
B
+4V 3
–
Ans. Sol.
(1) 10 A (3) For diode as ideal i=
119.
@V R
%
4 – ( –6 ) 10
3
(2) 0 A
–6V 2
–
(3) 10 A
1
–
(4) 10 A
2
–
= 10 A
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle .. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the care and the road i s 1s. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:
dksbZ dkj f=kT;k R dh ofØr lM+d ij xfreku gSA ;g lM+d dks.k . ij >qdh gSAdkj ds Vk;jksa vkSj lM+ d ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad 1s gSa bl lM+d ij dkj dk vf/kdre lqj{kk osx gS % (1) Ans.
1 s - tan . 1 s - tan . 1 s - tan . (2) gR 2 (3) gR (4) 1 – 1 s - tan . 1 – 1 s - tan . R 1 – 1 s - tan . g
2
g 1 s - tan . R 1 – 1 s - tan .
(3)
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Sol.
Code-C,R,Y
For maximum speed the tendency of body is to slip up the incline 2 Vmax
hence
=
Rg
tan . - 1 1 – 1 tan .
# tan . - 1 $ (( ) 1 – 1 tan . *
Rg''
or Vmax =
120.
| 01-05-2016 |
A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B ?, at a radial distances
a and 2a respectively, 2
from the axis of the wire is:
f=kT;k
a
ds fdlh yEcs lh/ks rkj ls dks bZ LFkk;h /kkjk
I
,dleku :i ls forfjr gSA rkj ds v{k ls f=kT;k nwfj;ksa
çokfgr gks jgh gSA bl rkj dh vuqçLFk dkV ij /kkjk a 2
vkSj
2a
ij Øe'k% pqEcdh; {ks=kksa
B
vkSj B? dk vuqikr
gS& (1) 4 Ans. Sol.
(2)
1 4
(3)
1 2
(4) 1
(4) If r = radial separation
1 0 i # R $ 1 0i # 1 $ # 1 0 i $ ( r = ' (= ' ( 2 (29R 2 ) ) 2 * 29R ) 2 * ) 29R *
B = Binside = '
1 0i 1 0i # 1 $ = ' ( /B : B? = 1 : 1 29r 29R ) 2 *
B? = Boutside =
121.
7
1
–
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10 m , the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be :
fjMcxZ fu;rkad dk eku gksxh % 7
Ans. Sol.
122.
# 1 % R' 2 : )2 1
–
1
–
(1) 2.5×10 m (4)
1 $
( C2 *
7
1
–
10 m
fn;k x;k gS] gkbMªkstu LisDVªe dh ckej Js.kh dh vafUre ykbu dh rjax la[;k 4
/
wave number =
7
1
–
(3) 0.5 ×10 m
7
1
–
(4) 0.25×10 m
107 m –1 4
2
If the velocity of a particle is A = At + Bt , where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1s and 2s is
;fn fdlh d.k dk osx A = At + Bt2 gS ;gk¡ gS% (1) Ans.
1
–
(2) 0.025 ×10 m
A B - 2 3
(2)
3 A -B 2
A rFkk B fLFkjkad
gS] rks bl d.k }kjk
(3) 3A + 7B
1s vkSj 2s ds chp
(4)
pyh x;h nwjh
3 7 A- B 2 3
(4)
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Sol.
Code-C,R,Y
Distance 2
2
D
s % vdt % 1
% 123.
| 01-05-2016 |
D At - Bt
2
1
3A 7B 2 3
The angle incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45º. The angle of prism is 60º. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are
fçTe ds fdlh viorZd i"V ij fdlh çdk'k fdj.k ds fy, viru dks.k dk eku 45º gSA fçTe dks.k dk eku 60º gSA ;fn ;g fdj.k fçTe ls U;wure fopfyr gksrh gS] rks U;wure fopyu dks.k rFkk fçTe ds inkFkZ dk viorZukad Øe'k% gS% 1
(1) 30º; Ans. Sol.
(2) 45º ;
2
1 2
(3) 30º ;
2
(4) 45º ;
2
(3) Give A = 60 and i = e = 60
Emin = i + e – A = 45 + 45 – 60 = 30 #E -A$ sin ' m ( ) 2 *% 2 1% #A$ sin ' ( )2* 124.
1
5
–
2
–
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms at 27ºC and 1.0×10 Nm 5 2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127 ºC and 0.05×10 Nm , 1 the r.m.s. velocity of velocity of its molecules in ms is ; –
rFkk 1.0×105 Nm 2 ij fdlh fn, x, æO;eku dh xSl ds v.kq v aks dk oxZ ek/; ewy (r.m.p.) osx 200 1 5 2 1 ms gSA tc bl xSl ds rki vkSj nkc Øe'k% 127ºC vkSj 0.05×10 Nm gS] rks ms esa bl xSl ds v.kqvksa dk oxZ ek/; ewy os x gS& rki
–
27ºC
–
(1)
–
100 3
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
VRMS % V1 % V2 200 % V2
(2) 100
2
(3)
400 3
(4)
100 2 3
3RT Mo T1 T2 300 400
/
V2 %
400 3
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125.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonantes with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is:
,d fljs ij cUn rFkk nwljs fljs ij [kqyk dksbZ ok;q LrEHk fdlh Lofj=k f}Hkq t ds lkFk ml le; vuqukn djrk gS tc bl ok;q LrEHk dh de ls de yEckbZ 50 lseh gksrh gSA blh Lofj=k f}Hkqt ds lkFk vuqukn djus okyh LrEHk dh vxyh cM+h yEckbZ gS& Ans.
(1) 200 cm (4)
(2) 66.7 cm
First harmonic at
Sol.
3rd harmonic
(3) 100 cm
(4) 150 cm
: 4
3: 4
1st length = 50 cm 3rd harmonic length 150 cm 126.
The magnetic susceptibility negative for (1) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials (3) paramagnetic material only
(2) diamagnetic material only (4) ferromagnetic material only
pqEcdh; lqxzkfgrk _.kkRed gksrh gS % (1) vuqpqEcdh; vkSj ykSg&pqEcdh; inkFkksZ ds fy, (3) dsoy vuq pqEcdh; inkFkZ ds fy,
(2) dsoy
Ans.
(2)
Sol.
1r = 1 + x
çfrpqEcdh; inkFkZ ds fy, (4) dsoy ykSg&pqEcdh; inkFkZ ds fy,
appropriate is diamagnetic 127.
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Brogli wavelengths associated with them is:
æO;eku
m ds 1
bysDVªkWu rFkk fdlh QksVkWu dh ÅtkZ,
1 # 2m $ 2 (1) ' ( c ) E * Ans.
1
1 # E $ 2 (2) ' ( c ) 2m *
E ,dleku
gSA buesa lac) ns czkXyh rjaxnS/;ksZ dk vuqikr gS % 1
# E $ 2 (3) ' ( ) 2m *
(4) c(2mE )1 / 2
(2)
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PAGE # 49
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Sol.
:electron =
h
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
…(1)
2ME
:photon
For
E = hF =
hc
…(2)
:photon
from these two ratio obtained by dividing these (2) 1G E H : 1 : :2 = I J c K 2ML
1/ 2
!
128.
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F % (2t ˆi - 3t 2 jˆ)N , when ˆ
i and jˆ are unit vectors along x and y axis. W hat power will be developed by the force at the time t ?
1 kg
æO;eku dk dksbZ fi.M fdlh dkyfJr cy
!
F % (2t ˆi - 3t 2 jˆ)N ,
ˆi
;gk¡
rFkk
jˆ , x
vkSj
y
v{k ds vuqfn'k ek=kd
lfn'k gS] ds v/khu xfr vkjEHk djrk gS ] rks le; t ij bl cy }kjk fodflr 'kfDr D;k gksxh ? 3
Ans. Sol.
5
2
(1) (2t + 3t )W (1) M = 1 kg
3
2
(2) (2t + 3t )W
a=
F 2t ˆ 3 t 2 ˆ % ij M (1) 1
V=
D adt = D 2t dt 1 + D 3t dt
4
3
(3) (2t + 4t )W
4
(4) (2t + 3t )W
2
V = t ˆi + t jˆ 2
3
Power = F.V. = (2ti + 3t jˆ ). (t i + t jˆ ) 2
3
power = 2t + 3 t 129.
2
3
5
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at constants. The total heat produced in R is :
fdlh çfrjks/k R ls çokfgr vkos'k dk le; t ds lkFk fopj.k fu;rkad gSA R esa mRié dqy Å"ek gS% (1) Ans. Sol.
a 3R b
(2)
a 3R 6b
(3)
2
Q = at – bt
a 3R 3b
– bt
2
, where a and b are positive
ds :i esa gksrk gS] tgk¡
(4)
a rFkk b /kukRed
a 3R 2b
(2) 2 Q = at – bt i=
dQ = a – 2bt dt t
H=
D 0
a 3R i Rdt = 6b 2
i=0t= t
/
a 2b
2
D > Rdt 0
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| 01-05-2016 |
a/2b
it %
D
(a – 2bt)2 Rdt = % a2 t -
0
Put t %
130.
a 2b
/
H=
4b2t 3 3
–
Code-C,R,Y
4bat 2 2
a 3R 6b
A npn transistor is connected in common emittet configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800 2 is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 1922 , the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be :
fdlh fn, x, ço/kZd es a dksbZ npn VªkaftLVj mHk;fu"B mRltZd foU;kl esa la;ksft gSA 800 2 dks dksbZ yksM çfrjks/k laxzkgd ifjiFk esa ls;ksftr gS vkSj blds fljksa ij 0.8 V foHkoikr gSA ;fn /kkjk ço/kZd xq.kkad 0.96 gSA rFkk ifjiFk dk fuos'k çfrjks/k 1922 gSA rks bl ço/kZd dh oksYVrk yfC/k rFkk 'kfDr yfC/k Øe'k% gksxh% Ans. Sol.
(1) 4,3.69 (2) 4,3.84 (2) Voltage gain = [current gain] [resistance gain] [.96]
(3) 3.69, 3.84
(4) 4, 4
800 192
power gain = [current gain] [resistance gain] [.96] [4] = 3.84 131.
a piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted in to heat during its fall. The value of h is : 5 [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10 J/Kg and g = 10 N/kg] (1) 68 km (2) 34 km (3) 544 km (4) 136 km
cQZ dk dksbZ VqdMk Å¡pkbZ h ls bl izdkj fxjrk gS fd og iw .kZr% fi?ky tkrk gSA mRiUu gksus okyh m"ek dk dsoy ,d&pkSFkkbZ Hkkx gh cQZ }kjk vo'kksf"kr fd;k tkrk gS rFkk cQZ dh leLr ÅtkZ blds fxjrs le; Å"ek esa :ikUrfjr gks tkrh gSA ;fn cQZ dh xq ir Å"ek 3.4 × 105 J/Kg rFkk g = 10 N/kg gSa] rks Å¡pkbZ h dk eku gS % Ans. Sol.
(1) 68 km (4)
(2) 34 km
(3) 544 km
(4) 136 km
Mg h = mL 4 h=
4L = 136 km g
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132.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be :
dksbZ oxkZdkj ik'k (ywi) ABCD ftlls /kkjk i, izokfgr gks jgh gS] fdlh yEcs lh/ks pkyd gks jgh gS ds fudV ,d gh ry esa j[kk gSa A bl ik'k ij yxus okyk ysV cy gks xk % Y
Ans.
210 >i 39
izokfgr
L
D
A L/2
(2)
I
i
X
10 >iL 29
ftlls /kkjk
C
B
>
(1)
XY
L
(3)
1 0 >i 29
(4)
210 >iL 39
(2) FBC C
B FAB
FCD
D
A FAD
Sol.
FBC cancels FAD FNet = FAB – FCD =
133.
1 0 >iL # L $ 29' ( ) 2 *
–
1 0 >iL 21 0 Ji 21 0 >i = = 39 39 # 3L $ 29' ( ) 2 *
A uniform rope of length L and mass m 1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength : 1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it r eaches the top of the rope is :2. The ratio : 1 / : 2 is : (1)
m1 - m2 m1
(2)
m1 m2
(3)
m1 - m2 m2
(4)
m2 m1
nzO;eku m1 rFkk yEckbZ L dh dksbZ ,dleku jLlh fdlh n < Vsd ls Å/okZ/kj yVdh gS A bl jLlh ds eqDr fljs ls nzO;eku m2 dk dksbZ xqVdk tqMk gSA jLlh ds eqDr fljs ij rjaxnS/;Z :1 dk dksbZ vuqizLFk LiUn mRiUu fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn jLlh ds 'kh"kZ rd igq¡pus ij bl LiUn dh rjaxnS/;Z :2 gks tkrh gSA rc vuikr :1 / :2 dk eku gS % (1) Ans.
m1 - m2 m1
(2)
m1 m2
(3)
m1 - m2 m2
(4)
m2 m1
(3)
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Sol.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
T m / "
v
:1 5 M2
Tension = M2g
:2 5 M2 - M1 Tension = M2g
T2 = (M1 + M2)g M1
T1 = M2g M2 :2 M1 - M2 % :1 M2 134.
A block body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U1 at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's constant, b = 2.88 × 10 nmK. Which of the following is correct ? (1) U2 > U1 (2) U1 = 0 (3) U3 = 0 (4) U1 > U2
6
dksbZ df".kdk 5760 K rki ij gSaA bl fi.M }kjk mRlftZ r fofdj.kksa dh ÅtkZ] rjaxnS/;Z 250 nm ij U1 rjaxnS/;Z 6 500 nm ij U2 rFkk rjaxnS/;z 1000 nm ij U3 gSA ohu&fu;rkad] b = 2.88 × 10 nmK gSA uhps fn;k x;k dkSu lk lac/k lgh gS\ Ans.
(1) U2 > U1 (1)
Sol.
:min T = b :5
(2) U1 = 0
(3) U3 = 0
(4) U1 > U2
1 T 4
u 5 (T) 5
1 (: )4
so u1 > u2 135.
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave ? (1) An accelerating charge (2) A charge moving at constant velocity (3) A stationary charge (4) A chargeless particle
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls fdldk mi;ksx ,d lapfjr fo|q r pqEcdh; rjax mRiUu djus esa fd;k tk ldrk gS\ (1) dksbZ Rofjr vkos'k (2) fu;r osx ls xfreku dksbZ vkos'k (3) fLFkj vkos'k (4) vkos'kghu d.k Ans.
(1)
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| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
PART C – CHEMISTRY . 136.
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption ? (1) @G and @S are negative but @H is positive (2) @G is negative but @H and @S are positive (3) @G, @H and @S all are negative (4) @G and @H are negative but @S is positive
fuEUkfyf[kr y{k.kksa esa ls dkSu lk vf/k'kks"k.k ls lEcfU/kr gS\ (1) @G rFkk @S _.kkRed ysfdu @H /kukRed gksrk gSA (2) @G _.kkRed ysfdu @H ,oa @S /kukRed gksrs gSA (3) @G, @H ,oa @S lHkh _.kkRed gksrs gSA (4) @G ,oa @H _.kkRed
ysfdu @S /kukRed gksrk gSA
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
According to Gibbs Helmholtz equation, @G = @H & T @S Adsorption is a spontaneous process (where @S < 0, @G < 0 and @H < 0)
fxCl gsYegkWV~t lehdj.k ds vuqlkj @G = @H & T @S vf/k'kks"k.k ,d Lor% izØe gksrk gS (tgk¡ @S < 0, @G < 0 rFkk @H < 0) 137.
The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is : 4
–
(1) 10 atm 14 (2) 10 atm 12 (3) 10 atm 10 (4) 10 atm –
–
–
298 K ij
'kq) ty esa
H2 bysDVªksM
dk foHko 'kwU; djus ds fy;s vko';d
H2
dk nkc gSA
4
–
Ans.
(1) 10 atm 14 (2) 10 atm 12 (3) 10 atm 10 (4) 10 atm (2)
Sol.
2H
–
–
–
+ (aq.) +
E = Eº –
0 = 0 –
–
2e MM! H2 (reduction reaction) (vip;u
vfHkfØ;k)
PH2 0.059 log 2 - H2 GH(aq.) K L
PH2 0.059 log 2 2 G10 &7 H
K
L
(In order to make log1 = 0) (log1 = 0 djus
ds fy, )
-7 2
PH2 = (10 ) 14
–
= 10
atm
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138.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities ? (1) Activation energy (3) Internal energy
(2) Entropy (4) Enthalpy
fdlh jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k esa mRis z sjd ds ;ksx ls fuEUkfyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh ek=kk cnyrh gSA (1) lfØ;.k ÅtkZ (2) ,sUVªkWih (3) vkarfjd ÅtkZ] (4) ,s aFkSYih Ans. Sol.
(1) Catalyst can affect only activation energy of the chemical reaction and cannot alter any thermodynamic parameters : (ie. @H , @G , @S )
mRizsjd dsoy jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k dh lfØ;.k ÅtkZ dks izHkkfor djrk gS] vU; Å"ek xfrdh; ekin.M dks ugha% (vFkkZr~ @H , @G , @S ) 139.
For the following reaction : (a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH M!CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O
CH3
(b) H3C
+ KOH
Br (c)
+ Br2
!
CH3
H3C
+ KBr OH
Br
M!
Br Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions. (2) (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) i s addition reaction. (3) (a) is elimination, (b) i s substitution and (c) is addition reaction. (4) (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reaction.
fuEu vfHkfØ;kvksa ds fy;s % (a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH M!CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O
CH3
(b) H3C
+ KOH
Br (c)
+ Br2
M!
!
CH3
H3C
+ KBr OH
Br Br
fuEu esa ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS ? (1) (a) izfrLFkkiu, (b) vkSj (c) ;ksXkt vfHkfØ;k,¡ gSA (2) (a) vkSj (b) foyksiu vfHkfØ;k,¡ gS rFkk (c) ;ksxt vfHkfØ;k gSA (3) (a) foyksiu vfHkfØ;k, (b) izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k vkSj (c) ;ksxt vfHkfØ;k gSA (4) (a) foyksiu vfHkfØ;k, (b) vkSj (c) izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k,¡ gSA Ans.
(3)
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Sol.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
(a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH M!CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O M! Elimination reaction Formation of 9-bond and conversion of saturated compound into unsaturated compound by t he removal of groups or atoms is known as Elimination r eaction
CH3
(b) H3C
+ KOH
Br
!
M! Substitution Reaction
CH3
H3C
+ KBr OH
Replacement of one group by other group known as Substitution Reaction Br
M! addition reaction Br Conversion of unsaturated compound into saturated compound by the addition of groups or atoms is called as addition reaction. (c)
+ Br2
M!
(a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH M!CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O M! foyksiu
vfHkfØ;k 9-ca/k dk fuekZ.k rFkk ijek.kq ;k lewgksa ds gVus ij larIr ;kSfxd dk vlarIr ;kSfxd es a :ikUrj.k dks foyksiu vfHkfØ;k dgrs gSA CH3 CH3 M! izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k (b) H3C H3C + KBr + KOH ! OH
Br
fdlh lewg dk nwljs lewg }kjk izfrLFkkiu gks us ij mls izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k dgrs gSA (c)
+ Br2
Br
M!
M! ;ksxt vfHkfØ;k
Br
ijek.kq ;k lewgksa ds tq M+us ij vlarIr ;kSfxd ds larIr ;kSfxd esa :ikUrj.k dks ;ksxt vfHkfØ;k dgrs gSA 140.
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is : (1) Aromatic acid (2) Schiff base (3) Ketone (4) Carboxylic acid
,sfYMgkbM ,oa izkFkfed ,sehu dh vfHkfØ;k ls cuk mRikn gSA : (1) ,sjksesfVd vEy (2) f'kQ~ {kkj (3) dhVksu (4) dkcksZfDlfyd vEy Ans. Sol.
(2) C=O + H2N –R
C=N –R
Aldehyde/ketone
Schiff's Base
C=O + H2N –R
C=N –R
fYMgk M / dhVksu
f'kQ {kkj
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141.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is : (1) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp-hybridized. (2) Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring 9 electrons system. (3) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring 9 electron system. (4) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group
,sjhy,sehu ds {kkjdrk ds fy;s lgh dFku gS : (1) ,sjhy,sehu lkekU;r% ,sfYdy,sehu ls T;knk {kkjh; gS D;ksfd ,sjhy,sehu es a ukbVªkstu ijek.kq sp-ladfjr gSA (2) ,sjhy,sehu lkekU;r% ,sfYdy,sehu ls de {kkjh; gS D;ksfd ukbVªkstu ds ,dkdh ;qXe bysDVªksu ,sjksesfVd oy; ds 9 bysDVªkWu ds lkFk foLFkkfudr gksrs gSA (3) ,sjhy,sehu lkekU;r% ,sfYdy,sehu ls T;knk {kkjh; gksrh gSA D;ksfd ukbVªkstu ds ,dkdh -;qXe bysDVªksu ,sjksesfVd oy; ds 9 bysDVªkus ds lkFk foLFkkfudr ugh gksr s gSA (4) ,sfjy lewg ds dkj.k ,sjhy,sehu lkekU;r% ,sfYdy,sehu ls T;knk {kkjh; gSA
Ans.
(2) NH2
Sol.
Delocalised lone pair of nitrogen atom with Benzene ring in aryl amine
aryl amine NN
! lone pair of electrons of nitrogen atom are not delocalized in alkyl amine. RNH2 MM (Alkyl amine)
NH2
,fjy ,ehu es a ukbVªkstu ds bysDVªkWu ;qXe csUthu oy; ds lkFk foLFkkfud r gksrs gSA
,fjy ,ehu NN
RNH2 (,fYdy
142.
M! ,fYdy ,ehu esa ukbVªkstu ds bysDVªkWu ;qXe foLFkkfudr ugha gks rs gSA
,ehu)
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of t he hydrogen to escape ? (1) 1/2 (2) 1/8 (3) 1/4 (4) 3/8
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Code-C,R,Y
gkbMªkstu ,oa vkWDlthu xSlksa ds leku eksyks dks ,d ik=k esa j[kk x;k gSA tks fd lw{e fNnz ds }kjk iyk;u dj ldrs gSA gkbMªkstu ds vk/ks iyk;u es a yxs le; esa vkWDlhtu dk fdruk va'k iyk;u djsxkA?
Ans. Sol.
(1) ½ (2) 1/8 (3) ¼ (4) 3/8 (2) Equal moles are given so partial pressure is equal (let = x)
leku eksy fn;s x;s gS blfy, vkaf'kd nkc leku gS (ekuk fd rO2 rH2
=
nO2 / t x / t 2 nO2 / t x / t 2
143.
x gS)
MH2 MO2 1 2 = 4 32
=
=
1 4
/
nO2 x
=
1 8
fraction of oxygen escaped =
1 . 8
iyk;u gq, vkWDlhtu dk va'k
1 8
=
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is: (1) The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain. (2) The staggered conformation of ethane is l ess stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain. (3) The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain. (4) The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.
,Fksu ds lkarfjr ,oa xz Lr la:i.k dh rqyuk ds fy;s lgh dFku gS& (1) ,Fksu dk lkarfjr la:i.k] xzLr la:i.k ls vf/kd LFkk;h gS D;ksafd lkarfjr la:i.k es a ,saBu ruko ¼ ejks M+h fodrh½ ugha gSA (2) ,Fksu dk lkarfjr la:i.k] xzLr la:i.k ls de LFkk;h gS D;ksafd lkarfjr la:i.k esa ,sa Bu ruko ¼ ejksM+h fodrh½ gSA (3) ,Fksu dk xzLr la:i.k] lkarfjr la:i.k ls vf/kd LFkk;h gS D;ksafd xzLr la:i.k esa ,saBu ruko ¼ ejksM+h fod rh½ ugha gSA (4) ,Fksu dk xzLr la:i.k] lkarfjr la:i.k ls vf/kd LFkk;h gS tcfd xzLr la:i.k esa ,s aBu ruko ¼ ejksM+h fodrh½ gSA Ans.
(1)
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H
H
H
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
H
Sol. H
H H
H
H H
H Staggered Newmann conformation
Eclipsed Newmann conformation
due to bond pair – bond pair repulsion (Torsional strain) Eclipsed conformation is less stable than staggered conformation. H
H
H
cfU/kr ;qXe gksrk gSA
H
H H
H H lkarfjr U;we su la:i.k
144.
H
H
–
H H
xzflr U;we su la:i.k
cfU/kr ;qXe izfrd"kZ.k ( ,saBu ruko) ds dkj.k xzflr la:i.k] lkarfjr la:i.k dh rqyuk esa de LFkk;h
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it ? (1) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius) 3+ 2+ + (2) Al < Mg < Na < F (increasing ionic size) (3) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionization enthalpy) (4) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy) –
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk Øe fn;s x;s xq .k/keZ ds ifjorZu ds vuqlkj lger ugha gS \ (1) Li < Na < K < Rb (c<+rh gqbZ /kkfRod f=kT;k ) 3+ 2+ + (2) Al < Mg < Na < F (c<+rs gq;s vk;fud vkdkj ) (3) B < C < N < O (c<+rk gqvk izFke vk;fud ,UFkSYih ) (4) I < Br < Cl < F (c<+rh gqbZ bysDVªksu yfC/k ,UFkSYih) –
Ans. Sol.
(3 & 4) Incorrect option are 3 & 4 st
Correct order of increasing I I.E ! B < C < O < N correct order of increasing electron gain Enthalpy ! I < Br < F < Cl (in magnitude) Values (in KJ/mol) ! 296, 325, 333, 349.
vlR; fodYi 3 & 4 gS izFke vk;uu ÅtkZ dk lgh c<+ rk Øe ! B < C < O < N bysDVªkWu yfC/k ,UFkSYih dk lgh c<+rk Øe ! I < Br < F < Cl (dsoy ifjek.k) eku (KJ/mol esa) ! 296, 325, 333, 349.
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145.
| 01-05-2016 |
The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol
"
1
–
Code-C,R,Y 1
–
s at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol
"
1
–
1
–
s at 20 seconds
after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is :
,d izFke dksfV dh vfHkfØ;k dk os x vfHkfØ;k izkjEHk gksus ds 1
–
Ans.
(1) 54.1 s (2)
Sol.
r2
%
r1 k=
k=
C2 1 t2
– t1
(2) 24.1 s
20 – 10 k
C2
"n
1 "n2
ckn
0.04 mol
–
"
1
1
–
s
rFkk
20 sec
ckn
0.03
gSA bl vfHkfØ;k dh v)Z vk;q dky gS&
( for first order reaction) (izFke
C1
t1/ 2 % =
1
–
mol " s
10 sec
C1 "n
%
%
1
t 2 – t1
0.04
0.03
"n2 "n4 / 3
%
1
10
"n
"n
(3) 34.1 s
(4) 44.1 s
dksfV vfHkfØ;k ds fy, )
r2
r 1 4
3
4 10
2.3 4 0.3 4 10 2.3(0.6 – 0.477)
= 24.4 sec. 146.
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces : (1) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O (2) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2 (3) Cu(NO3)2 and NO (4) Cu(NO3)2 , NO and NO2
dkWij dks lkUnz
HNO3 ds
rFkk (3) Cu(NO3)2 rFkk (1) Cu(NO3)2 Ans.
(2)
Sol.
Cu + 4HNO 3
lkFk xeZ djus ij curk gS& rFkk
N2O
(2) Cu(NO3)2
NO2
NO
(4) Cu(NO3)2 , NO rFkk NO2
! Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O
conc
Brown gas
Cu + conc HNO3 M! NO2 Cu + dil HNO3
147.
! NO
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by : (1) dative bond
(2) <-glycosidic bond
(3) B-glycosidic bond
(4) peptide bond
izksVhu v.kq esa fofHkUu ,s ehuks vEy ,d nwljs ls tqM+s jgrs gS & (1) nkrk vkca/k ds }kjk (2) <-XykbZdksflfMd vkca/k ds }kjk (3) B-XykbZdksflfMd vkca/k ds }kjk (4) isIVkbZM vkca/k ds }kjk Ans.
(4)
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Code-C,R,Y
R2
R1 H2N — CH — C — OH
+ H2 N — CH — C — OH O
O amino acid (,ehuks vEy½ Sol.
R1
R2
H2N — CH — C — NH — CH
— COOH
O Peptide Bond (isIVkbM cU/k) 148.
Fog is a Colloidal solution of : (1) Gas in gas
(2) Liquid in gas
(3) Gas in liquid
(4) Solid in gas
/kqa/k dksykWbMh foy;u gS& (1) xSl esa xSl dk
(2) xSl
(3) nzo
(4) xSl
Ans.
(2)
Sol.
Fog
esa nzo dk
esa xSl dk
esa Bksl dk
Dispersed phase is liquid Dispersion medium is gas
/kqa/k
ifjf{kIr izkoLFkk nz o gSA ifj{ksi.k ek/;e xSl gSA
149.
Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code : Column I
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Column II
Cyanide process Froth floatation process Electrolytic reduction Zone refining
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
Ultrapure Ge Dressing of ZnS Extraction of Al Extraction of Au Purification of Ni
Code dksM+ : (1) (2) (3) (4)
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (ii)
(c) (v) (iii) (i) (iii)
(d) (i) (i) (v) (iv)
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Code-C,R,Y
LrEHk I ds mYys[k dks LrEHk II ds mYys[k ls feyk;saA lgh ladsr i)fr gS& LrEHk I LrEHk II lkW;ukbM izØe Qsu Iyou fof/k fo|qr vi?kVuh vip;u eaMy ifj"dj.k
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
dksM+
vfr'kq) Ge ZnS dk izlk/ku Al dk fu"d"kZ.k Au dk fu"d"kZ.k Ni dk 'kks/ku
: (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (ii)
(c) (v) (iii) (i) (iii)
(d) (i) (i) (v) (iv)
Ans.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (2)
Sol.
Cyanide process M! Leaching process of Au Au + 2NaCN aq.
O2
–
Au(CN)2 + Na
+
Froth floatation process M! Pressing of ZnS (It is applicable for concentration of sulphide are) Electrolytic reduction M! Extraction of Al Zone refining M! Purification of Si, Ge 150.
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar ? (1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
fuEu esa ls dkSulh ,d xSl vipk;d 'kdZjk gS \ (1) lqØksl (2) ekYVksl Ans. Sol.
(3) Lactose
(4) Glucose
(3) ysDVksl
(4) Xyqdksl
(1) Sucrose is Non Reducing sugar. (both the anomeric carbon are bonded to each other than such sugars are non reducing)
lqØksl ,d vuvipk;d 'kdZjk gSA (nksuksa ,uksesfjd dkcZu ijLij cfU/kr gSA blfy, bl izdkj dh 'kdZjk vuvipk;d gksrh gSA) 151.
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is : (1) The sugar component in RNA is 2'-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose. (2) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose. (3) The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose. (4) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose.
RNA rFkk DNA ds fy;s
lgh dFku Øe'k% gS&
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Code-C,R,Y
(1) RNA esa 'kdZ 'kdZjk
?kVd 2'-fMvkWDlhjkbcksl vkSj DNA es a 'kdZjk ?kVd vjSfcuksl gSA (2) RNA es 'kdZ a 'kdZjk ?kVd vjSfcuksl gS vkSj DNA es 'kdZ a 'kdZjk ?kVd 2'-fMvkWDlhjkbcksl gSA (3) RNA es 'kdZ a 'kdZjk ?kVd jkbcksl gS vkSj DNA esa 'kdZjk ?kVd 2'-fMvkWDlhjkbcksl gSA (4) RNA es 'kdZ a 'kdZjk ?kVd vjSfcuksl gS vkSj DNA es 'kdZ a 'kdZjk ?kVd jkbcksl gS A Ans. Sol.
152.
(3) DNA
RNA
De-oxy Ribose sugar
Ribose Sugar
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is : (1) @H < 0 and @S < 0
(2) @H < 0 and @S = 0
(3) @H > 0 and @S < 0
(4) @H < 0 and @S > 0
lHkh rki ij Lor% vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lgh Å"ekxfrdh; 'krsZ gS& (1) @H < 0 rFkk @S < 0 (2) @H < 0 rFkk @S = 0 (3) @H > 0 rFkk @S < 0 (4) @H < 0 rFkk @S > 0 Ans.
(4)
Sol.
@G = @H – T@S For spontaneous process ( @G = -Ve) at all temperature, @H < 0 & @S > 0.
lHkh rki ij Lor% izØe ds fy, (@G = -Ve), @H < 0 & @S > 0. 153.
Which is the correct statement for the given acids? (1) Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid w hile phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid. (2) Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprot ic acid. (3) Both are diprotic acids. (4) Both are triprotic acids
fuEufyf[kr esa ls ls dkS ulk dFku fn;s x;s vEyks a vEyks a ds ds fy;s lgh gS a a\ (1) QkWfLQfud vEy f}izksVh vEy gS tcfd QkW LQks LQksfud vEy ,dizksksVh vEy gSA (2) QkWfLQfud vEy ,dizksVh vEy gS tcfd QkW LQks LQksfud vEy f}izksVh vEy gSA (3) nksukas f}izksvh vEy gSA (4) nksuksa f=kizksVh vEy gSA Ans.
(2)
Sol.
Phosphoric acid (Phosphonic acid) H 3PO3 (dibasic)
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Code-C,R,Y
O P H OH OH Hypophosphorous Hypophosphorous acid (Phosphinic acid) H3PO2 (monobasic) O P H 154.
H
OH 13
–
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 x 10 at room temperature, which statements would be true in regard to MY and NY3? (1) The addition of the salt of KY K Y to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities. (2) The molar solubilities of MY and N Y3 in water are identical. (3) The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3. (4) The salts MY and NY 3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY K Y than in pure water.
,oa NY3, nks yxHkx vfoys; yo.kks a dk dejs ds rki ij Ksp dk eku 6.2 x 10 13 ,dleku gSA fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku MY ,oa NY3 ds la lanHkZ es a es a lR; gS\ (1) KY yo.k dks MY ,oa NY3 ds foy;u esa Mkyus ij budh foys ;rk ;rk ij dksbZ izHkko Hkko ugha iM+rk gSA (2) MY ,oa NY3 dh ty esa eks eksyj foys;rk leku gSA (3) MY dh ty esa eksyj foys;rk NY3 ls de gSA (4) MY ,oa NY3 ds yo.k 'kq) ty dh rqyuk esa 0.5 M KY esa T;knk foys; gS A –
MY
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
MY KSP = S12 = 6.2 × 10
13
–
14
–
= 62 × 10
7
–
S1 = 7.9 × 10 mole/lt = Solubility in pure water 13
14
MY3 KSP = 27 S24 = 6.2 × 10 = 62 × 10 ~ 10 3.5 mole/lt = Solubility in pure water S2 _ –
–
–
rd
Solubility of NY3 > solubility of MY so 3 statement is true Addition of KY will decrease the solubility due to common ion effect. Sol.
13
–
MY KSP = S12 = 6.2 × 10 7
–
S1 = 7.9 × 10
eksy / yhVj yhVj = 'kq) ty esa foys;rk –
MY3 KSP = 27 S24 = 6.2 × 10 ~ 10 S2 _
14
–
= 62 × 10
13
–
= 62 × 10
14
3.5
–
eksy / yhVj yhVj = 'kq) ty es a foys foys;rk NY3 dh foys;rk > MY dh foys;rk blfy, rhljk dFku lR; gSA KY feykus ij ij levk;u izHkko ds dkj.k foys ;rk ?kVrh gSA
155.
Which of the following in an analgesic?
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Code-C,R,Y
(1) Chloromycetin (2) Novalgin (3) Penicillin (4) Streptomycin
fuEu esa ls dkSulh nok ,d ihMkgkjh gS \ (1) Dyksjks jksekblhfVu (2) uksoyftu (3) isfuflfyu (4) LVªsIVksekbflu Ans. Sol.
(2) Novalgin is an analgesic it is a fa ct.
156.
The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH 3C P CO , is present in which of the following orbitals?
fn;s x;s dkcZ&_.kk;u
Ans.
(1) sp (2) 2p 3 (3) sp 2 (4) sp (1)
Sol.
CH3 –CPC
CH3C P CO , ds
;qXe bysDVªkWu fuEu esa ls fdl d{kd esa mifLFkr gS\
sp hybridisation
Steric Number (1Q + 1 –ve charge)
157.
Among the following, the correct order correct order of acidity is :
fuEu esa ls vEyrk dk lgh Øe lgh Øe gS &
Ans. Sol.
(1) HCIO4 < HCIO2 < HCIO < HCIO3 (2) HCIO3 < HCIO4 < HCIO2 < HCIO (3) HCIO < HCIO2 < HCIO3 < HCIO4 (4) HCIO2 < HCIO < HCIO3 < HCIO4 (3) As oxidation number of central atom increases, acidic nature increases.
dsUnzh; ijek.kq dh vkWDlhdj.k la[;k c<+us ij vEyh; izdfr c<+ rh rh gSA HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
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158.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution? (1) Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed. (2) The solution turns blue (3) The solution is decolourized. (4) SO2 is reduced.
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS ulk dFku lR; gS ] tc
SO2
dks vEyh;
K2 Cr2O7 ds
foy;u esa ls ikl fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) gjk Cr2(SO4)3
curk gSA (2) foy;u uhyk iM+ tkrk gSA (3) foy;u jaxghu gks tkrk gSA (4) SO2 vipfr; gksrk gSA Ans.
(1)
Sol.
! Cr2(SO4)3 green solution obtain where as SO 2 oxidise into sulphate SO24 – K2Cr2O7 MM K2Cr2O7 MM ! Cr2(SO4)3 gjk (K2Cr2O7 + SO2 + H2SO4
159.
foy;u izkIr gksrk gS tgk¡ SO2 dk
SO24 –
esa vkWDlhdj.k gks tkrk gSA
M! Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O + K2SO4)
Predict the correct order among the following : (1) Ione pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair (2) lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair (3) lone pair – lone pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair (4) bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
fuEu esa ls lgh Øe gksxk & (1) ,dkdh ;qXe – vkca/kh ;qXe > vkca/kh ;qXe – vkca/kh ;qXe > ,dkdh ;qXe – ,dkdh (2) ,dkdh ;qXe – ,dkdh ;qXe > ,dkdh ;qXe – vkca/kh ;qXe > vkca/kh ;qXe – vkca/kh (3) ,dkdh ;qXe – ,dkdh ;qXe > vkca/kh ;qXe – vkca/kh ;qXe > ,dkdh ;qXe – vkca/kh (4) vkca/kh ;qXe – vkca/kh ;qXe > ,dkdh ;qXe – vkca/kh ;qXe > ,dkdh ;qXe – ,dkdh Ans. Sol.
;qXe ;qXe ;qXe ;qXe
(2) The order of repulsion force according to VSEPR theory : VSEPR fl)kUr
ds vuqlkj izfrd"kZ.k cy dk Øe gS
:
lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair 160.
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by : (1) Spin quantum number (2) Principal quantum number (3) Magnetic quantum number (4) Azimuthal quantum number
nks bysDVªkWu tks fd ,d gh d{kd esa gSA buesa vUrj fdlds }kjk fd;k tk ldrk gS\ (1) izpØ.k DokaVe la[;k (2) eq[; DokaVe la[;k (3) pqEcdh; DokaVe la[;k (4) fnxa'kh; DokaVe la[;k Ans.
(1)
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Sol.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y –
Same orbital can have two different values of spin of e of +½ and –½ (spin quantum number)
leku d{kd esa bysDVªkWu ds pØ.k ds fy, nks fHkUu eku gks ldrs gS A 161.
–½)
(pØ.k Dok.Ve la[;k)
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is :
ukbVªkstu dh
Ans. Sol.
(+½ rFkk
CaC2 ds
lkFk vfHkfØ;k ds izkIr mRikn gS &
(1) Ca2CN (2) Ca(CN)2 (3) CaCN (4) CaCN3 (Bonus) Reaction of CaC2 and nitrogen at 1100 ºC form nitrolim (calcium cyanamide and carbon mixture).
M! CaCN2 + C
CaC2 + N2
(No answer in matching) CaC2 rFkk
ukbVªkWtu dh vfHkfØ;k
1100ºC ij
gksus ls ukbVªkWfye dk fuekZ.k gksrk gSA
(calcium cyanamide and
carbon mixture).
M! CaCN2 + C
CaC2 + N2
(No answer in matching) 162.
Natural rubber has : (1) Random cis – and trans –configuration (2) All cis –configuration (3) All trans –configuration (4) Alternate cis – and trans –configuration
izkdfrd jcj esa & (1) vfu;fer fll~ & ,oa Vªkal&foU;kl gSA (2) lHkh fll~&foU;kl gSA (3) lHkh
VªkUl&foU;kl gSA (4) ,dkUrj fll~&,oa Vªkal&foU;kl gSA Ans. Sol.
(2) It is fact
163.
Which one of the following orders is correct for th e bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u Øe gSykstu v.kqv aks dh vkca/k fo;kstu ,UFkSYih ds fy;s lgh gS\
Ans.
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (3) CI2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (3)
Sol.
Bond dissociation enthalpy (cU/k
fo;kstu ,UFkSYih)
CI2 242.6
F2 158.8
>
Br2 192.8
(2) I2 > Br2 > CI2 > F2 (4) Br2 > I2 > F2 > CI2
>
>
I2 151.1
(kJ/mole)
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164.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The reaction : OH
NaH
O
Na
Me
Me –I
can be classified as : (1) Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction (3) Alcohol formation reaction
O
(2) Williamson ether synthesis reaction (4) Dehydration reaction
vfHkfØ;k & OH
NaH
O
Na
dks oxhZdr fd;k tk ldrk gS & (1) fofy;Elu ,Ydksgy la'ys"k.k vfHkfØ;k (3) ,Ydksgy fojpu vfHkfØ;k Ans.
Me
Me –I
O
(2) fofy;Elu
bZFkj la'ys"k.k vfHkfØ;k (4) futZyhdj.k vfHkfØ;k
(2)
Sol.
OH + NaH
O
acid-ase Reaction SN
Na
CH3—I
O –CH3 This williamson ether synthesis 165.
3
–
–
1
Lithium has bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol . Calculate the 23 1 edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (NA = 6.02 × 10 mol ) –
fyfFk;e dh bbc lajpuk gSA bldk ?kuRo 530 kg m 3 rFkk ijek.kq nzO;eku 6.94 g mol 1 gSA fyfFk;e /kkrq ds ,dd dksf"Bdk ds dksj dh yEckbZ gSA (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol 1) –
–
–
Ans.
(1) 264 pm (3)
Sol.
d=
(2) 154 pm
ZA
for BCC
NA & a3 3
530 kg/m
=
3
(3) 352 pm
(4) 527 pm
Z=2
2 4 6.94 4 10 &3 6.02 4 1023 4 a3
30
–
a = 43.50 × 10 10 a = 3.52 × 10 m = 352 pm. –
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166.
| 01-05-2016 |
+
–
–
The ionic radii of A and B ions are 0.98 × 10 each ion in AB is +
Code-C,R,Y
10
–
m and 1.81 × 10
–
–
,oa B vk;uksa dh vk;fud f=kT;k,¡ Øe'k% 0.98 × 10 milgla;kstu la[;k gSA A
Ans. Sol.
(1) 2 (2)
(2) 6
10
m
10
m. The coordination number of
,oa 1.81 × 10 10 –
(3) 4
m
gSA
AB
esa izR;sd vk;u dh
(4) 8
rA -
0.98 4 10 &10 = = 0.54 1.814 10 &10 rB&
Octahedral range ( v"VQydh;
lhek)
0.414 R
r < 0.732 r&
Co-ordination no. of each ion is 6 like NaCl structure.
izR;sd vk;u dh leUo; la[;k 167.
NaCl lajpuk
ds leku N% gSA
At 100º C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If K b = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be :
,d 6.5 g foys; dk dk DoFkukad gksxk % Ans. Sol.
168.
100 g
ty esa foy;u dk
100º C
ij ok"Ik nkc
732 mm
(1) 103º C (2) 101º C (2) At B.P. P0 = 760 torr
(3) 100º C
DoFkukad fcUnq ij
DoFkukad mUu;u ds fy,
gSA ;fn K b = 0.52 rks bl foy;u (4) 102º C
for elevation of B.P.
P0 = 760 torr
# 6.5 $ ') 32 (*
P0 & Ps WA / MA = Ps WB / MB
@TB = I Kbm = 1 × 0.52 ×
760 & 732 6.5/M = 732 100/18
=1
On solving M = 32.
So B.P. = 100 + @TB = 101ºC
100
× 1000 = 1
The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63) Gd (Atomi c No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are : 7
2
7
1
2
9
2
(1) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s and [Xe]4f 6s 7 2 8 2 8 1 2 (2) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 6s and [Xe]4f 5d 6s 6 1 2 7 1 2 9 1 2 (3) [Xe]4f 5d 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s and [Xe]4f 5d 6s 6 1 2 7 1 2 8 1 2 (4) [Xe]4f 5d 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s and [Xe]4f 5d 6s Eu (i-l- 63) Gd (i-l- 64) vkSj Tb (i-l- 65) ds 7
2
7
1
bysDVªksfud foU;kl gS %
vkSj [Xe]4f96s2 7 2 8 2 8 1 2 (2) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 6s vkSj [Xe]4f 5d 6s 6 1 2 7 1 2 9 1 2 (3) [Xe]4f 5d 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s vkSj [Xe]4f 5d 6s 6 1 2 7 1 2 8 1 2 (4) [Xe]4f 5d 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s vkSj [Xe]4f 5d 6s (1) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s
Ans.
2
(1)
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Code-C,R,Y
2
! [Xe] 4f 6s 7 1 2 64 Gd ! [Xe] 4f 5d 6s 9 0 2 65Tb ! [Xe] 4f 5d 6s
Sol.
63 Eu
169.
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect ? (1) Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent. (2) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is t he most common. (3) Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts. + (4) Hydronium ion, H3O exists freely in solution.
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk dFku gkbMªkstu ds fy, vlR; gS \ (1) Mkbgkbªkstu
vipk;d ds :i esa dk;Z ugha djrk gSA (2) gkbMªkstu ds rhu leLFkkfud gS ftlesa ls VªkbfV;e izpqjrk esa gSA
(3) gkbMªkstu
vk;fud yo.kksa es a /kuk;u dh rjg O;ogkj ugha djrk gSA + (4) gkbMªksfu;e vk;u, H3O dk vfLrRo foy;u esa eqDr :i esa gksrk gSA Ans. Sol.
(1 & 2) 1 and 2 option are incorrect
M! 2NH3
Correct – Dihydrogen act as reducing agent for eg 3H 2 + N2 1
Correct – Hydrogen has three isotopes of which protium ( 1H ) is the most common. 1 rFkk 2 fodYi
vlR; gSA
Correct – MkbgkbMªkstu
vipk;d ds leku O;ogkj djrk gSA eg 3H2 + N2 MM! 2NH3 1 Correct – gkbMªkstu ds rhu leLFkkfud gksrs gSA ftlesa izksVh;e (1H ) lokZf/kd izpfyr gSA 170.
In the reaction H –CP CH
(1)NaNH2 / liq.NH 3 (1)NaNH2 / liq.NH 3 MMMMMM ! x MMMMMMM !y ( 2) CH CH Br ( 2) CH CH Br 3
2
3
2
X and Y are : (1) X = 1-Butyne ; y = 2-Hexyne (2) X = 1-Butyne ; y = 3-Hexyne (3) X = 2-Butyne ; y = 3-Hexyne (4) X = 2-Butyne ; 2 = 2-Hexyne
vfHkfØ;k esa H –CP CH
(1)NaNH2 / liq.NH 3 (1)NaNH2 / liq.NH 3 MMMMMM ! x MMMMMMM !y ( 2) CH CH Br ( 2) CH CH Br 3
2
3
2
X vkSj Y gS : (1) X = 1- C;wVkbu ; y = 2- gs Dlkbu (2) X = 1-C;wVkbu ; y = 3-gsDlkbu (3) X = 2-C;wVkbu ; y = 3-gsDlkbu (4) X = 2-C;wVkbu ; 2 = 2-gsDlkbu Ans.
(2)
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Sol.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
P
NaN H / NH
2 3 HCPCH MMMMMM ! HC C —Na+CH3 –CH2 –Br &NH3 =
SN2 NaNH2 / NH3 ( a) CH3 –CH2 –CPC SMMMMMM M CH3 –CH2 –CPCH 1-Butyne
CH3CH2 –Br
CH3 –CH2 –CPC –CH2 –CH3 Hex-3-yne 171.
Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium. Liquid
$$$ % &$$ $ Vapour
Which of the following relations is correct ? (1)
dlnP @Hv % dT RT 2
(2)
dlnG dT
2
%
@Hv RT
2
(3)
dlnP &@ Hv % dT RT
(4)
(3)
dlnP &@ Hv % dT RT
(4)
dlnP dT
2
%
&@ Hv
%
&@ Hv
T2
uhps fn;s x;s nzo & ok"i lkE;koLFkk] nzo
$$$ % &$$ $
ok"i
esa ls dkSu lk lacU/k lgh gS \ (1)
dlnP @Hv % dT RT 2
(2)
dlnG dT
2
%
@Hv RT
2
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
The variation of vapour pressure and temperature is on differentiate
= &
@Hº RT
dT
2
T2
+ constant
d("nP ) @Hº = + + 0 dT RT 2
ok"inkc dk rki ds lkFk ifjorZ u on differentiate
"nP
dlnP
"nP
= &
@Hº RT
+ constant
d("nP ) @Hº = + + 0 dT RT 2
d( "nP) @Hº = dT RT 2 172.
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct ? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25 ºC. (Given, Vapour Pressure Data at 25ºC, Benzene = 12.8kPa, toluene = 3.85kPa) (1) Not enough information is given to make a prediction. (2) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene. (3) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene. (4) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.
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Code-C,R,Y
csUthu ,oa VkWywb Zu ds 1 : 1 vkn'kZ eksyj feJ.k ds ok"i la;kstu ds fy;s fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS\ dYiuk djsa fd rkieku 25ºC ij fLFkj gSA (fn;s x;s ok"i nkc 25ºC csUthu = 12.8kPa, VkWywb Zu = 3.85kPa) (1) vi;kZIr lwpukvksa ds dkj.k dksbZ iwokZ uqeku ugha yxk;k tk ldrk gSA (2) ok"i es a csUthu dh vf/kd izfr'krrk gksxh (3) ok"i es a VkWywbZu dh vf/kd izfr'krrk gksxh (4) ok"i es a leku ek=kk es a csUthu ,oa VkWywbZu gksxhA Ans. Sol.
(2) Due to high partial vapour pressure of Benzene as compare to that of toluene so the mole fraction of Benzene will be higher than that of toluene. As a result the vapour will contain a higher percentage of Benzene.
csathu ds mPp vkaf'kd ok"i nkc ds dkj.k bldk eksy fHkUu vf/kd gksrk gSA blfy, ok"i esa cs athu dh iz fr'krrk vf/kd gksxhA 173.
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active
fuEu esa ls dkSu lk ckbZfQuk;y iz dkf'kd lfØ; gS \ O2N
CH3 (1)
(2) CH3
I
Br Br
I
(3)
(4) I
Ans. Sol.
I
I
(3) O-substituted biphenyls are optically active as both the rings are not in one plane hence their mirror mages are non-super imposable.
vkWFkksZ izfrLFkkfi ckbZ fQukbZy esa nksuks fjax ,d ry esa ugh gS vr% blesa izdkf'k; leko;ork gSA 174.
Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1,2- diol from the tr ans-isomer ? (1) Aluminium isopropoxide (3) Ozone
(2) Acetone (4) MnO2
fuEu esa ls dkSu lk vfHkdeZd fll~& lkbDyksisUVk -1,2-MkbZvkWy ,oa blds Vªkal leko;oh esa Hksn djsxk \ (1) ,sY;qfefu;e vkblksizksiksDlkbM (2) ,slhVksu (3) vkstksu (4) MnO2 Ans.
(2) OH O=C
Sol.
OH
CH3 CH3
O C O
CH3 CH3
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| NEET-2016
175.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is : (1) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly corresponding enol and this processes is known as keto-enol tautomerism . (2) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never corresponding enol. (3) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration. (4) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly corresponding enol and this process is known a carbonylation.
equilibrates with its equilibrates with its equilibrates with its equilibrates with its
dkcksZfuy ;kSfxd ftuesa < dkcZu ij gkbMªkstu mifLFkr gS] ds fy, lgh dFku gS % (1) dkcksZfuy ;kSfxd ftuesa < dkcZu ij gkbMªkstu ijek.kq mifLFkr gS] ;g buds vuq:i bZukW y esa vklkuh ls lkE;koLFkk esa gksrs gSa vkSj ;g izØe fdVks&bZukW y pyko;ork dgykrhgSA (2) dkcksZfuy ;kSfxd ftuesa < dkcZu ij gkbMªkstu ijek.kq mifLFkr gS] ;g buds vuq:i bZukWy ls dHkh Hkh lkE;koLFkk esa ugha gksrs gSA (3) dkcksZfuy ;kSfxd <&dkcZu ij gkbMªkstu ijek.kq mifLFkr gS] ;g buds vuq:i bZukWy es a vklkuh ls lkE;koLFkk es gksr s gS vkS j ;g izØe ,sfYMgkbM&dhVksu lkE;koLFkk dgykrk gS A (4) dkcksZfuy ;kSfxd ftuesa <-dkcZu gkbMªkstu ijek.kq mifLFkr gS] ;g buds vuq:i bZukWy ls vklkuh ls lkE;koLFkk esa gksrs gS vkSj ;g izØe dkcksZfuyhdj.k dgykrk gSA Ans. Sol.
(1) It is known that basic need for the existance of Keto-enol tautomers is the presence of at least one 3
hydrogen atom at adjacent sp carbon of carbonyl carbon.
dhVks bZukWy leko;ork ds fy, dkcksZ fuy 176.
3
sp
dkcZu ij de ls de ,d <&gkbMªkstu dh mifLFkfr vko';d gSA
Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statement is false ? (1) The H –C –H bond angle is CH 4 is larger than the H –N –H bond angle is NH 3 (2) The H –C – H bond angle is CH 4 the H –N –H bond angle in NH 3 and the H –O –H bond angle in H 2O are all greater than 90º. (3) Then H –O –H bond angle in H 2O is larger than the H –C –H bond angle in CH 4 (4) The H –O –H bond angle in H 2O is smaller than the H –N –H bond angle in NH 3 CH4, NH3 vkSj H2O v.kqvksa ds
fy;s uhps fn;s x;s dFkuksa es a ls dkSu lk vlR; gS \
es a H –C –H vkca/k dks.k] NH3 esa H –N –H vkca/k dks.k ls vf/kd gSA (2) CH4 es a H –C –H vkca/k dks.k] NH3 esa H –N –H vkca/k dks.k rFkk H2 O esa H –O –H vkca/k dks.k] lHkh esa vf/kd gSA (3) H2O esa H –O –H vkca/k dks.k] CH4 esa H –C –H vkca/k dks.k ls vf/kd gSa (4) H2O esa H –O –H vkca/k dks.k] NH3 esa H –N –H vkca/k&dks.k ls de gS A (1) CH4
Ans.
90º
ls
(3)
Resonance E Eduventures L Ltd. CORPORATE O OFFICE :: CG T Tower, A A-46 & & 5 52, IIPIA, N Near C City M Mall, JJhalawar R Road, K Kota ((Ra j. j.) - 324005 Reg. O Of f i c e : J 2 , J a w a h a r N a g a r , M a i n R o a d , K o t a ( R a j. . ) 3 2 4 0 0 5 | P h . N o . : + 9 1 7 4 4 3 1 9 2 2 2 2 | F A X N o +91-022-39167222 f : N N . :: + J N M R K ( j Ph.No. :: +91-744-3012222, 6 6635555 | T To K Know m more :: sms RESO a at 56677 Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail :
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| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
H
Sol.
3
CH4
C
sp
H
H
Bond angle = 109 º 281 H
NN
N
3
NH3
sp
H
H
H
Bond angle = 107 º
NN 3
H2O
177.
sp
H
O NN H
Bond angle = 104 º 5
Match the compound given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. Column-I
Column-II
(a)
XeF 6
(i)
distorted octahedral
(b)
XeO3
(ii)
square planar
(c)
XeOF4
(iii)
pyramidal
(d)
XeF4
(iv)
square pyramidal
Code : (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1)
(iv)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iv)
(iii)
(4)
(iv)
(iii)
(i)
(ii)
LrEHk esa I es a fn;s x;s ;kSfxdksa dks muds ladj.k ,oa vkdkj tks fd LReHk fodYi dks fpfUgr dhft,A LrEHk-I LrEHk II foÑr v"VQydh; (a) XeF 6 (i) oxZ leryh (b) XeO3 (ii) fijkfeMh (c) XeOF4 (iii) oxZ fijkfeMh (d) XeF 4 (iv) dksM :
Ans.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1)
(iv)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iv)
(iii)
(4) (2)
(iv)
(iii)
(i)
(ii)
II
esa fn;s x;s gS a dks feyk;s rFkk lgh
Resonance E Eduventures L Ltd. CORPORATE O OFFICE :: CG T Tower, A A-46 & & 5 52, IIPIA, N Near C City M Mall, JJhalawar R Road, K Kota ((Ra j. j.) - 324005 Reg. O Of f i c e : J 2 , J a w a h a r N a g a r , M a i n R o a d , K o t a ( R a j. . ) 3 2 4 0 0 5 | P h . N o . : + 9 1 7 4 4 3 1 9 2 2 2 2 | F A X N o +91-022-39167222 f : N N . :: + J N M R K ( j Ph.No. :: +91-744-3012222, 6 6635555 | T To K Know m more :: sms RESO a at 56677 Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail :
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PAGE # 74
| NEET-2016
Sol.
3 3
XeF6
sp d
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
distorted octahedral fodr
v"VQydh;
F NN
F
F
Xe F
F F
3
XeO3
sp
pyramidal fijkfeMh;
NN
Xe O
O
O XeF4 F
3 2
square pyramidal
oxZ fijkfeMh;
3 2
square planar oxZ
leryh;
sp d F
NN
Xe F
F O XeF4 F
sp d F NN
Xe NN
F 178.
F
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H 2SO4 and HNO3 . If a larger amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture the rate of nitration will be : (1) doubled (2) faster (3) slower (4) unchanged
csUthu dk ukbVªhdj.k laknz H2SO4 ,oa HNO3 dh mifLFkfr esa gks jgk gSA ;fn bl feJ.k esa T;knk ek=kk esa Mkyrs gS rks ukbVªhdj.k dk os x gksxk% (1) nqxquk (2) rst (3) /khjs (4) vifjofrZr Ans. Sol.
(3) + If large amount of KHSO4 is added, Concentration of NO 2 will decrease and hence the rate of nitration will be slower.
;fn KHSO4 dks vf/kd ek=kk esa feyk;k tkrk gS rks tkrh gSA 179.
KHSO4
NO2
+
dh lkUnzrk ?kVrh gS ftlls ukbfVªdj.k dh nj /kheh gks
Which of the following statement is false ? 2+ (1) Mg ions are important in the green parts of plants. 2+ (2) Mg ions from a complex with ATP. 2+ (3) Ca ions are important in blood clotting. 2+ (4) Ca ions are not important in maintaining t he regular beating of the heart.
Resonance E Eduventures L Ltd. CORPORATE O OFFICE :: CG T Tower, A A-46 & & 5 52, IIPIA, N Near C City M Mall, JJhalawar R Road, K Kota ((Ra j. j.) - 324005 Reg. O Of f i c e : J 2 , J a w a h a r N a g a r , M a i n R o a d , K o t a ( R a j. . ) 3 2 4 0 0 5 | P h . N o . : + 9 1 7 4 4 3 1 9 2 2 2 2 | F A X N o +91-022-39167222 f : N N . :: + J N M R K ( j Ph.No. :: +91-744-3012222, 6 6635555 | T To K Know m more :: sms RESO a at 56677 Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail :
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| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk dFku vlR; gS\ 2+ (1) Mg vk;u ikS/kks a ds gfjr Hkkxksa ds fy;s egRoiw.kZ gSA 2+ (2) Mg vk;u ,-Vh-ih- ds lkFk ldqy cukrs gSA 2+ (3) Ca vk;u jDr dks tekus ds fy;s egRoiw.kZ gSA 2+ (4) Ca vk;u ân; xfr dks fu;fer j[kus es egRoiw.kZ ugha gSA Ans. Sol.
(4) +2 Ca are important in blood clotting and are also important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart. Ca
180.
2+
vk;u jDr dks tekus ds fy;s rFkk ân; xfr dks fu;fer j[kus es Hkh egRoiw.kZ gS A
Which of the following has longest C –O bond length ? (Free C –O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å)
fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldh +
(1) [Mn(CO)6] Ans. Sol.
(4) Fe
C
C –O vkca/k
yEckbZ vf/kdre gS\ (eqDr C –O vkca/k yEckbZ CO es a 1.128 Å gSA) (3) [Co(CO) 4]
(2) Ni(CO)4
(4) [Fe(CO)4]
2 –
O
Due to back bonding between metal-carbon bond length of C –O increase (B.O of M –C = B.O of C – C T B.L. of C –O =) Higher is negative charge on metal, higher is back bonding (synergic effect) so bond length is higher so answer is [Fe(CO) 4] Fe
C
2 –
O
i'p vkcU/ku ds dkj.k /kkrq dkcZu cU/k yEckbZ c<+rh gS (B.O of M –C = B.O of C –C T B.L. of C –O =) /kkrq ij ftruk vf/kd _.kkos'k gksxk mruk vf/kd i'p vkcU/ku gksxkA blfy, cU/k yEckbZ Hkh vf/kd gks xhA
Resonance E Eduventures L Ltd. CORPORATE O OFFICE :: CG T Tower, A A-46 & & 5 52, IIPIA, N Near C City M Mall, JJhalawar R Road, K Kota ((Ra j. j.) - 324005 Reg. O Of f i c e : J 2 , J a w a h a r N a g a r , M a i n R o a d , K o t a ( R a j. . ) 3 2 4 0 0 5 | P h . N o . : + 9 1 7 4 4 3 1 9 2 2 2 2 | F A X N o +91-022-39167222 f : N N . :: + J N M R K ( j Ph.No. :: +91-744-3012222, 6 6635555 | T To K Know m more :: sms RESO a at 56677 Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail :
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PAGE # 76